2014年3月31日星期一

Symantec 250-323 examen pratique questions et réponses

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Code d'Examen: 250-323
Nom d'Examen: Symantec (Data Protection Administration for Windows using NBU 5.0)
Questions et réponses: 201 Q&As

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NO.1 Which two criteria can be used to expire physical media? (Choose two.)
A. date
B. media full
C. number of mounts
D. media moved to a new server
E. change the backup retention level
Answer: AC

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NO.2 NetBackup is not able to communicate with a tape device after you have configured it.
What do you verify?
A. NetBackup is running as root.
B. Media Manager has been installed.
C. The operating system has inetd running.
D. The operating system has mapped the logical device to the physical device.
Answer: D

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NO.3 Which three catalogs are contained only on the master server? (Choose three.)
A. Class
B. Jobs
C. Devices
D. Image
Answer: ABD

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NO.4 Which command is used to verify that NetBackup and Media Manager processes are running?
A. bpps
B. bpdbm
C. bpbackup
D. bpprocess
Answer: A

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NO.5 The latest Maintenance Pack has just been applied to your Microsoft Windows master server.
In which directory under <install dir>\ do you validate that it was installed successfully?
A. var
B. pack
C. patch
D. netbackup
Answer: C

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NO.6 You are troubleshooting a robot or drive error and require additional Media Manager logs.
Which two debug directories can you create for robot or drive error troubleshooting? (Choose two.)
A. ltid
B. bpcd
C. reqlib
D. bpdm
Answer: AC

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NO.7 Which script do you execute to uninstall a Maintenance Pack from a UNIX master server?
A. Vrts_pack.uninstall
B. Vrts_patch.uninstall
C. Vrts_pack.install and select Uninstall
D. Vrts_patch.install and select Uninstall
Answer: A

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NO.8 How many different backup image retention selections are available?
A. 9
B. 10
C. 24
D. 25
E. 99
Answer: D

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NO.9 After installing the master server, which three daemons should be running if the installation was
successful? (Choose three.)
A. bprd
B. bptm
C. bpjobd
D. bpdbm
E. bpdm
Answer: ACD

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NO.10 Which three commands can help resolve NetBackup network problems? (Choose three.)
A. ping
B. bpverify
C. nslookup
D. nbclntcmd -ip
E. bpclntcmd -hn
Answer: ACE

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NO.11 You are installing a new NetBackup client that must communicate across a firewall to its master/media
server.
Which NetBackup 5.0 process helps reduce the number of ports that must be opened in the firewall?
A. inetd
B. bpcd
C. vnetd
D. firewalld
Answer: C

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NO.12 You want to restrict NetBackup administrative access to users logged into a particular media server.
How do you accomplish this?
A. add the media server name to the server list, and not the media server list
B. add the media server name to the media server list, and not the server list
C. add the media server name to both the server list and the media server list
D. remove the media server name from both the server list and the media server list
Answer: B

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NO.13 Given the following scenario about a policy with a single client:
Allow Multiple Data Streams is enabled.
ALL_LOCAL_DRIVES is specified.
Three tape drives are available in the Storage Unit.
Max Jobs Per Client is set to 2.
The client specified has 5 local file systems with no exclude list.
How many backup jobs will be "Active" (not queued) after the policy successfully initiates?
A. 1
B. 2
C. 3
D. 5
Answer: B

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NO.14 Which three capabilities are available in the NetBackup 5.0 calendar-based scheduler? (Choose three.)
A. run a user backup job
B. run a NBU catalog backup
C. exclude a backup job on a specific date
D. run a backup job on the fourth Friday of the month
E. run a backup job on the last calendar day of the month
Answer: CDE

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NO.15 You have just installed a NetBackup 5.0 master server.
Which three NetBackup processes are running if the installation was successful? (Choose three.)
A. bprd
B. bptm
C. bpjobd
D. bpdbm
E. bpdm
Answer: ACD

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NO.16 What are three recommendations for NetBackup media server installation? (Choose three.)
A. You should remove any other vendor backup software.
B. At least one tape drive should be available for backup operations.
C. All NetBackup servers should recognize and be recognized by their client systems.
D. You should make certain that you have a server of a supported hardware type running a supported
version of an OS.
Answer: ACD

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NO.17 How do you specify an exclude list for a single policy or schedule?
A. Client properties: UNIX clients or Windows clients: Exclude List Select the policy or schedule
B. Client properties: UNIX clients or Windows clients: Exclude list area type in the name of the policy or
schedule before the exclude list
C. Client properties: UNIX clients or Windows clients: Exclude List Exceptions to the Exclude List area
D. Client properties: UNIX clients or Windows clients: Include List Exceptions to the Exclude List area
Answer: B

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NO.18 Which two actions do you perform prior to upgrading a media server from NetBackup 4.5 to 5.0?
(Choose two.)
A. stop all bpsched processes
B. delete the existing bp.conf file
C. stop all of the NetBackup and Media Manager daemons
D. save copies of customized NetBackup scripts
Answer: CD

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NO.19 Which two ways can the UNIX client named clientA be configured to have the NetBackup master server
only back up clientA over its backup LAN (which is called clientA-bckup)? (Choose two.)
A. REQUIRED_INTERFACE = clientA-bckup
B. NETBACKUP_INTERFACE = clientA-bckup
C. Universal Settings > NetBackup Interface > clientA-bckup
D. Universal Settings > Required Network Interface > clientA-bckup
Answer: AD

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NO.20 Which two statements are true about installing multiple media servers? (Choose two.)
A. A server license key must be installed on each media server.
B. All media server installations must be pushed from the master server.
C. All media server installations should be performed as root/administrator.
D. All media server installations can be pushed from a media server with the same OS.
Answer: AC

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Code d'Examen: 250-250
Nom d'Examen: Symantec (Administration of Staorage Foundation 5.0 for UNIX)
Questions et réponses: 199 Q&As

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NO.1 Which vxsnap command option recreates a space-optimized instant snapshot?
A.restore
B.reattach
C.refresh
D.reassociate
Correct:C

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NO.2 In the output of the vxdisk list command, there are no entries in the DISK and GROUP columns.
However, you see online invalid in the output of the STATUS column. What does the online invalid
status indicate?
A.The disk is failing and needs to be replaced for future use in Volume Manager.
B.The disk is incompatible with the current release of Volume Manager.
C.The disk is available for initialization or encapsulation by Volume Manager.
D.The disk is available for use and has encapsulated data deported on another system.
Correct:C

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NO.3 Which commands display plex, volume, and kernel states? (Choose two.)
A.vxcat
B.vxdisplay
C.vxinfo
D.vxprint
E.vxstate
Correct:C D

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NO.4 Which command is used to change the stripe unit size and number of columns for the datavol
volume in the datadg disk group?
A.vxvol datadg convert datavol stripeunit=32k ncol=5
B.vxassist datadg convert datavol stripeunit=32k ncol=5
C.vxvol datadg relayout datavol stripeunit=32k ncol=5
D.vxassist datadg relayout datavol stripeunit=32k ncol=5
Correct:D

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NO.5 Which command upgrades the datadg disk group from version 50 to the current disk group
version?
A.vxdg -T 50 upgrade datadg
B.vxdg upgrade datadg
C.vxdg currvers datadg
D.vxdg 50 currvers datadg
Correct:B

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NO.6 Which states are displayed in the output of vxprint? (Choose two.)
A.Data
B.Kernel
C.File System
D.Volume
E.User
Correct:B D

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NO.7 The upgrade scripts are being used to upgrade Volume Manager. Which file's existence would
indicate that the upgrade_start script had been run, but the upgrade_finish has yet to be run?
A./UPGRADE_START/.start_runed
B./VXVM5.0-UPGRADE/.start_runed
C./etc/vx/.start_runed
D./etc/vx/.upgrade_runed
Correct:B

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NO.8 Which command can be used to remove a mirror from a volume? (Choose two.)
A.vxedit
B.vxassist
C.vxremove
D.vxevac
E.vxmirror
Correct:A B

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NO.9 What are valid mount options for a Veritas file system? (Choose two.)
A.nolargefiles
B.shared
C.logtmp
D.delaylog
E.logdelay
Correct:A D

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NO.10 What occurs when you add an initialized disk to an existing disk group? (Choose two.)
A.The public and private regions are created on the disk.
B.An empty volume is created on the disk by default.
C.The disk group configuration database is updated.
D.Volume Manager performs a rescan to recognize all newly configured disks.
E.The disk is stamped with the system host ID.
Correct:C E

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NO.11 Which vxassist parameter is used to set the number of data plexes in a non-layered mirrored
volume?
A.nplex
B.numplex
C.nummirror
D.nmirror
Correct:D

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NO.12 Which statements are true about renaming the disk object? (Choose two.)
A.New disk names must be unique within the disk group.
B.All subdisks will be renamed together with the disk.
C.The disk group needs to be offline.
D.The new disk name must be unique within the system.
E.Subdisks names will remain the same.
Correct:A E

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NO.13 Which command displays the amount of free space in the configuration database of the datadg
disk group?
A.vxdg -g datadg free
B.vxdg -g datadg list
C.vxdg free datadg
D.vxdg list datadg
Correct:D

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NO.14 When creating a new volume with the New Volume Wizard in VEA, which layout options are
available to create a layered volume? (Choose two.)
A.concatenate-mirror
B.stripe-mirror
C.mirror-stripe
D.mirror-concatenate
E.concatenate-stripe
F.stripe-concatenate
Correct:A B

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NO.15 Which command displays the number of paths to the datadg01 disk?
A.vxdisk list datadg01
B.vxdg list datadg01
C.vxpath list datadg01
D.vxdmpadm list datadg01
Correct:A

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NO.16 Which command grows the datavol volume by an additional 30 MB and resizes the file system at
the same time?
A.vxassist -g datadg growby datavol 30m
B.vxresize -g datadg datavol 30m
C.vxresize -g datadg datavol +30m
D.vxassist -g datadg growto datavol 30m
Correct:C

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NO.17 Which statement is true about adding a mirror to an existing striped volume?
A.A concatenated plex is added to the volume by default.
B.You can use any disks in the disk group to contain the new plex.
C.Synchronization of the new plex is required.
D.You should add the new plex to a different disk group for redundancy.
Correct:C

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NO.18 After initializing a disk for use in Volume Manager, which command is used to create a disk
group named datadg on a device shown as device_tag and using a disk media name of datadg01?
A.vxassist create datadg datadg01=device_tag
B.vxdg create datadg datadg01=device_tag
C.vxdg init datadg datadg01=device_tag
D.vxassist datadg init datadg01= device_tag
Correct:C

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NO.19 Which command removes the datadg02 disk from the datadg disk group?
A.vxassist datadg rmdisk datadg02
B.vxdg datadg rmdisk datadg02
C.vxassist datadg remove disk datadg02
D.vxdg datadg remove datadg02
Correct:B

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NO.20 Which statements are true about deporting a disk group? (Choose two.)
A.The volumes are unavailable.
B.The disk group is available for importing.
C.The disk group is deported and online.
D.The file systems are destroyed.
E.The file systems are accessible.
Correct:A B

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Symantec meilleur examen 250-312, questions et réponses

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Code d'Examen: 250-312
Nom d'Examen: Symantec (Administration of Symantec Backup Exec 12 for Windows Server)
Questions et réponses: 246 Q&As

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NO.1 Which two alert category types can be disabled? (Choose two.)
A. Warning alerts
B. Attention Required alerts
C. Error alerts
D. E-mail Failure alerts
E. Informational alerts
Answer: AE

Symantec   250-312   250-312   250-312

NO.2 Which two statements are accurate regarding full backups and copy backups? (Choose two.)
A. Full backups and copy backups of the same resource include the same data.
B. Full backups and copy backups are different names for the exact same backup method.
C. Full backups and copy backups can be configured to reset the archive bit of backed up files.
D. Full backups can reset the archive bit of backed up files; copy backups are unable to reset the archive
bit.
E. Copy backups can reset the archive bit of backed up files; full backups are unable to reset the archive
bit.
Answer: AD

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NO.3 A financial institution has a two-hour backup window and is required to restore individual e-mails
within 20 minutes if their Microsoft Exchange Server fails.
Which Service Level Agreement (SLA) meets the Recovery Point Objective (RPO) and Recovery Time
Objective (RTO) requirements?
A. RTO 2 hours, RPO 20 minutes, Granular Recovery Technology enabled
B. RTO 20 minutes, RPO 2 hours, Granular Recovery Technology enabled
C. RTO 20 minutes, RPO 2 hours, Individual E-mail Recovery enabled
D. RTO 2 hours, RPO 20 minutes, Individual E-mail Recovery enabled
Answer: B

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NO.4 A global company must use a "follow-the-sun" backup strategy, which means that the backup servers
are constantly performing backups. The SLA requires that both DHCP and Active Directory remain
available.
Which Symantec Backup Exec 12 for Windows Servers component is required in order to meet the SLA?
A. Data Protection Option
B. Advanced Open File Option
C. Central Admin Server Option
D. Agent for Enterprise Vault Option
Answer: B

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NO.5 What does the Backup Exec Environment Check utility verify to ensure that the installation process can
complete successfully? (Choose two.)
A. Is a previous version of Backup Exec installed?
B. Is there enough storage space for disk-based backups?
C. Is an SMTP Server available?
D. Are there Microsoft SQL database account privileges?
E. Are there sufficient logon account privileges?
Answer: AE

Symantec   250-312   250-312   250-312 examen

NO.6 What are two benefits of enabling Database Maintenance in Symantec Backup Exec 12 for Windows
Servers? (Choose two.)
A. deletes aged reports
B. exports the database to XML
C. removes alert history
D. decreases the size of the database
E. opens the database for sharing
Answer: CD

Symantec examen   250-312   250-312   250-312   250-312

NO.7 Which two Symantec Backup Exec 12 for Windows Server agents/options support remote installation
from an existing media server? (Choose two.)
A. Active Directory Recovery Agent
B. Advanced Open File Option
C. Desktop and Laptop Option
D. Library Expansion Option
E. Shared Storage Option
Answer: BC

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NO.8 A large enterprise provides a six-hour backup window at night, but requires failed systems to be
restored immediately.
Which SLA meets the Recovery Point Objective (RPO) and Recovery Time Objective (RTO)
requirements?
A. RPO 0, RTO 0
B. RPO 6 hours, RTO 6 hours
C. RPO 6 hours, RTO 0
D. RPO 0, RTO 6 hours
Answer: C

Symantec   250-312   250-312   250-312   250-312

NO.9 Which three summaries can be found on the Job Monitor's System Summary view? (Choose three.)
A. device and media summary
B. alerts summary
C. licensing summary
D. installed patch summary
E. job summary
Answer: ABE

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NO.10 Refer to the exhibit.
A backup administrator must recover all Microsoft Word documents (.doc) created after January 1, 2005
from the F:\CEO directory, including subfolders.
How is this accomplished?
A. enter F:\CEO for the Path; enter *.doc for the File; select Include subdirectories; enter 1/1/2005 for
From box; enter today's date for To box; select Include for Type
B. enter F:\CEO for the Path; enter *.* for the File; enter 1/1/2005 for the From Box; leave the To box blank;
select Include for Type
C. enter F:\*.* for the Path; enter \CEO\*.doc for the File; select Include subdirectories; enter 1/1/2005 for
the From box; enter today's date for the To box; select Exclude for Type
D. enter \* for the Path; enter *.doc for the File; select Include subdirectories; enter 1/1/2005 for the From
box; enter today's date for the To box; select Include for Type
Answer: A

Symantec   250-312 examen   250-312

NO.11 Which three versions of Microsoft SQL does Symantec Backup Exec 12 for Windows Servers support?
(Choose three.)
A. Microsoft SQL Server Desktop Edition (MSDE) 2000
B. Microsoft SQL 2005 Express Edition
C. Microsoft SQL Server 2000 SP2
D. Microsoft SQL Server 2000 SP3a or later
E. Microsoft SQL Server 7.0
F. Microsoft SQL 2005
Answer: BDF

Symantec examen   250-312   250-312

NO.12 Using the silent mode method, how can a backup administrator push-install Backup Exec Remote
Agent for Windows Systems simultaneously to multiple machines?
A. create a command file that reads a number from a .txt file
B. create a command file that reads remote computer names from a .txt file
C. use the Push Install Wizard to add the number of simultaneous installs
D. use the Push Install Wizard to add the parameters for the silent installation
Answer: B

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NO.13 Which Symantec Backup Exec 12 for Windows Servers agent/option provides Microsoft Virtual Server
support?
A. Shadow Copy
B. Virtual Machine
C. System State
D. Remote Agent
Answer: D

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NO.14 Which compression type produces the least network traffic in a multi-server backup environment?
A. compression with de-duplication
B. software compression
C. hardware compression
D. compression with encryption
Answer: B

Symantec   250-312 examen   certification 250-312   250-312

NO.15 A web-based retailer's mission-critical servers must be online constantly, providing zero downtime in
which to run a backup.
Which Symantec Backup Exec 12 for Windows Servers component is required in order to meet the SLA?
A. Advanced Disk-based Backup Option
B. Continuous Protection Server Option
C. Volume Shadow Copy Services Option
D. Central Admin Server Option
Answer: B

Symantec examen   250-312   250-312 examen

NO.16 Which Symantec Backup Exec 12 for Windows Servers component manages devices and media?
A. Advanced Device and Media Manager
B. Media Operations Manager
C. Enterprise Media Manager
D. Advanced Tape Device Manager
Answer: A

Symantec examen   certification 250-312   250-312   250-312   250-312   certification 250-312

NO.17 Refer to the Exhibit.
Which method provides the most current restore point?
A. tape replication
B. tape backup
C. system rebuild
D. system deduplication
Answer: B

Symantec   certification 250-312   250-312   250-312

NO.18 Which account enables Symantec Backup Exec 12 for Windows Servers to access resources for
backup?
A. administrative
B. logon
C. service
D. domain
Answer: B

Symantec   250-312   250-312   250-312   250-312

NO.19 Which media set property defines the amount of time that data can be added to a piece of media?
A. Append Period
B. Overwrite Protection Period
C. Retention Period
D. Media Update Period
Answer: A

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NO.20 Which two factors define a backup Service Level Agreement (SLA)? (Choose two.)
A. Recovery Point Objective
B. Recovery Time Objective
C. Recovery Method
D. Recovery Retention Period
E. Recovery Priority Objective
Answer: AB

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NO.21 A single tape-drive robotic library is attached to the Symantec Backup Exec 12 for Windows Servers
(Backup Exec) media server but fails to display in the Backup Exec Devices window. The library is in the
correct location under the Robotic Libraries tree, but instead of listing the drive underneath it, there is a
listing of Unknown Drive. The drive name is listed under Stand-alone Drives.
What must be done to solve this problem?
A. Restart the Backup Exec Server service and scan for new devices in Windows Device Manager.
B. Power down the Backup Exec Server and the attached robotic library, then power up the robotic library
before powering up the Backup Exec Server.
C. Run the Backup Exec Device Configuration Wizard and drag the correct drive name to the position
under the robotic library.
D. Because the robotic library is unserialized and not supported by Backup Exec, replace the robotic
library with a supported robotic library.
Answer: C

Symantec   250-312   250-312 examen

NO.22 Which two Calendar Schedule settings can you use to schedule a job to run on the first and fifteenth of
every month? (Choose two.)
A. Specific Dates
B. Recurring Week Days
C. Recurring Days of the Month
D. Day Interval
E. Time Window
Answer: AC

Symantec examen   250-312   250-312 examen

NO.23 Which three statements are true about the attributes of a device pool? (Choose three.)
A. The All Available Drives device pool can be deleted.
B. A drive can belong to more than one device pool.
C. A device pool can contain different types of drives.
D. Device priority can be set on a device pool.
E. Multiple backup jobs can be targeted to the same device pool.
Answer: BCE

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NO.24 A medium-sized paper company with several remote offices deploys Symantec Backup Exec 12 for
Windows Servers Central Admin Server Option (CASO) in their data center. The company's SLA requires
that the backup environment be restored to an alternate location in the event of a data center outage.
Which CASO catalog location option meets this company's SLA?
A. Centralized Catalog
B. Distributed Catalog
C. Replicated Catalog
D. Exported Catalog
Answer: C

Symantec examen   250-312   certification 250-312

NO.25 Which database application is included with Symantec Backup Exec 12 for Windows Servers?
A. Microsoft SQL 2005 Express
B. Microsoft SQL Server 2000 SP2
C. Microsoft SQL Desktop Edition 2000
D. Microsoft SQL Server 2005
Answer: A

Symantec   250-312 examen   250-312

NO.26 Refer to the exhibit.
Which Symantec Backup Exec 12 for Windows Servers option is required to manage all backups from the
data center?
A. Shared Storage Option
B. Active Directory Recovery Option
C. Central Admin Server Option
D. Executive Desktop Option
Answer: A

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NO.27 Refer to the exhibit.
Annual accounting history must be archived for 120 days and marketing history must be archived for 90
days.
Which setting allows reporting for marketing and accounting history?
A. change Keep alert history to 90 days
B. change Keep job logs to 120 days
C. change Keep job history selection for keep job history to match current OPP
D. change Keep job history for selected number of days to 120
Answer: C

Symantec   250-312   250-312 examen

NO.28 Which Symantec Backup Exec 12 for Windows Servers (Backup Exec) utility can be used to change
the user account listed in the Backup Exec services?
A. Services
B. BEServices
C. ServicesMgr
D. BEDIAG
Answer: C

Symantec examen   250-312 examen   250-312

NO.29 Which technology provides the most efficient Recovery Point Objective (RPO)?
A. Remote Administration Option
B. Intelligent Disaster Recovery Option
C. Backup Exec System Recovery
D. Continuous Protection Server
Answer: D

Symantec examen   certification 250-312   certification 250-312

NO.30 An attempt to install the Remote Agent for Linux and UNIX Servers on a UNIX server fails.
Which log can be reviewed to determine the cause of the installation failure?
A. /var/tmp/vxif/installralus/installralus.log
B. /var/logs/ralus/installralus.log
C. /install/symantec/logs/ralus.log
D. /usr/openv/symantec/logs/install.log
Answer: A

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Code d'Examen: ST0-47X
Nom d'Examen: Symantec (Symantec NetBackup 6.5 (STS))
Questions et réponses: 105 Q&As

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NO.1 What are three options for locating and viewing Veritas NetBackup 6.5 manuals and other
documentation? (Select three.)
A. NetBackup 6.5 media set (the CD-ROMs and/or DVD-ROMs)
B. documentation files in /opt/openv/goodies/hlp (UNIX/Linux)
C. hard copy documentation provided with NetBackup 6.5
D. online on the Symantec Corporation Support website
E. help files in C:\Program Files\Veritas\NetBackup\goodies\help (Windows)
Answer: ACD

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NO.2 Which two disk-based features support data de-duplication? (Select two.)
A. SAN Disk
B. Flexible Disk
C. OpenStorage Disk
D. PureDisk Storage
Answer: CD

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NO.3 Which two components/options of Veritas NetBackup 6.5 include the Bare Metal Restore (BMR) Client?
(Select two.)
A. Standard Client
B. Bare Metal Restore Client
C. Enterprise Client
D. Desktop and Laptop Client
E. Database and Application Pack
Answer: AC

Symantec   ST0-47X   ST0-47X

NO.4 What are two features of the Flexible Disk Option? (Select two.)
A. shared disk
B. de-duplication
C. replication
D. advanced disk
Answer: AD

Symantec   ST0-47X   ST0-47X   ST0-47X   certification ST0-47X   ST0-47X

NO.5 Which three features are included in the Standard Infrastructure capacity tier? (Select three.)
A. Library Based Tape Drive
B. OpenStorage Option
C. Vault Option
D. Shared Storage Option
E. Flexible Disk Option
Answer: ACD

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NO.6 Which feature of Veritas NetBackup 6.5 allows backup data to be encrypted at no additional cost?
A. Media Server Encryption
B. NDMP Encryption
C. Client Encryption
D. EMM Server Encryption
Answer: C

Symantec   ST0-47X examen   ST0-47X   ST0-47X examen

NO.7 What is it called when an administrator sets up a set of disk volumes that can then be assign to
specific Media Servers, Policies, or Storage Units?
A. OpenStorage
B. Disk Pool
C. Volume Pool
D. Disk Storage Unit
Answer: B

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NO.8 In Veritas NetBackup 6.5, what is a backup policy?
A. a set of associations defining which Backup Creation Wizard will run with which clients
B. a schedule defining when a given backup will execute its full or incremental sessions
C. a list of parameters that define the details of how a given backup will be performed
D. a list of clients to be backed up and how long the backup can run
Answer: C

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NO.9 What is OpenStorage?
A. the new Symantec physical disk array
B. the software layer that interfaces with any type of disk
C. the Veritas NetBackup 6.5 service that manages disks
D. a new term for a Veritas NetBackup 6.5 Disk Storage Unit
Answer: B

Symantec examen   ST0-47X   ST0-47X examen   ST0-47X examen

NO.10 An administrator wants to use the capacity-based licensing model. There are 50 clients, each with 50
GB of data that must be backed up. Ten of the clients are database servers.
What is the correct specification for determining the license configuration?
A. 5 Front End Terabytes, 40 Client Licenses, 10 Application and Database Packs
B. 1 Enterprise Server, 40 Client Licenses, 10 Application and Database Packs
C. 2.5 Front End Terabytes, 50 Client Licenses, 10 Application and Database Packs
D. 5 Back End Terabytes, 50 Client Licenses, 10 Application and Database Packs
Answer: C

Symantec examen   ST0-47X   ST0-47X examen   ST0-47X   ST0-47X examen

NO.11 In your data center, application data is deemed to be the most important data. You use Platinum Data
Classification in the policy to back up the Application data. You have UNIX clients that use Silver and
Bronze Data Classifications in their policies. There are Windows clients that do not use Data
Classifications. All data is backed up to DSSUs, have a one-year retention and have relocated to tape.
Which backup images are deleted first from the DSSUs when the disk becomes full?
A. application backups
B. UNIX client backups
C. Windows client backups
D. No backups are deleted.
Answer: C

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NO.12 In Veritas NetBackup 6.5 there are currently three storage units (STU-A, STU-B and STU-C). STU-A is
set as On Demand Only, and STU-B and STU-C do not have On Demand Only selected. Three policies
have been created as follows: PolicyA is set up to use storage unit STU-A, PolicyB is set up as Any
Available storage unit and PolicyC is set up to use STU-C.
If STU-B fills up, and STU-A and STU-C still have available space, what happens to future backups for
PolicyB?
A. Backups will use STU-A.
B. Backups will use STU-C.
C. Backups will remain queued waiting for available space on STU-B.
D. Backups will fail with an error message indicating media is unavailable.
Answer: B

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NO.13 Which two cause the Policy Execution Manager to modify the Next Due Jobs worklist? (Select two.)
A. when Enterprise Media Manager initiates a request to modify the worklist
B. when a backup policy is added, modified, or removed
C. when a job is initiated and completed
D. when a user initiated backup is requested
Answer: BC

Symantec   ST0-47X   ST0-47X   ST0-47X   ST0-47X examen

NO.14 For Veritas NetBackup 6.5, what is a backup image?
A. a complete copy of an existing backup to tape media (from a disk staging unit or tape media)
B. the subset of NetBackup 6.5 catalog metadata that describes and precisely locates the data from one
client
C. all backup data that is backed up from one client in a single stream during a specific backup session
D. a full backup of the data from one client, plus the Bare Metal Restore system image from that same
client
Answer: C

Symantec examen   ST0-47X   ST0-47X

NO.15 An administrator wants to back up a VMware virtual machine using the VMware Consolidated Backup
(VCB) interface.
Which component is required to enable VCB backups?
A. Database and Application Pack
B. Enterprise Client
C. Desktop and Laptop Option
D. Workstation Client
Answer: B

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NO.16 Which two purchased options of Veritas NetBackup 6.5 enable the additional features found in the
Enterprise Disk Foundation? (Select two.)
A. Enterprise Client Option
B. Advanced Vault Option
C. VCB Integration Option
D. OpenStorage Option
E. Flexible Disk Option
Answer: DE

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NO.17 What happens when a backup is started and there are no tapes in the pool specified in the policy?
A. The backup automatically fails and a status code 96 is shown.
B. The Media Manager tries to move a tape from the Scratch Pool to the specified pool.
C. The oldest Full backup is deleted, and that tape is reused for the backup.
D. The GUI pops up a message asking the administrator which action to take.
Answer: B

Symantec   ST0-47X   ST0-47X   ST0-47X

NO.18 Which three statements are true about exclude lists? (Select three.)
A. They can be specific for schedules.
B. They can be specific for policies.
C. They can be used during user initiated backups.
D. They can use wildcards for file names.
E. They can be run after the include list.
Answer: ABD

Symantec   ST0-47X   ST0-47X   ST0-47X   ST0-47X examen

NO.19 What are two benefits of using OpenStorage to manage and control the use of disk-based storage by
Veritas NetBackup 6.5? (Select two.)
A. A Storage Unit can be configured to fail over from a Disk Pool to tape.
B. Multiple Media Servers can access and share a Disk Pool.
C. A Data Pool can be created, which allows load balancing of both tape and disk.
D. Load balancing can be performed across the Media Servers for a Disk Pool.
Answer: BD

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NO.20 Which two are internal databases used by Veritas NetBackup 6.5? (Select two.)
A. NDMP File database
B. Image database
C. Topology database
D. EMM database
E. Encrypted Media database
Answer: BD

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Code d'Examen: ST0-050
Nom d'Examen: Symantec (Symantec Network Access Control 11 (STS))
Questions et réponses: 100 Q&As

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NO.1 Which three types of data can be used with LAN Enforcers for the authentication sequence? (Choose
three.)
A. machine GUID
B. Policy ID
C. Host Integrity state
D. location awareness settings
E. user group
Answer: ACD

Symantec examen   ST0-050 examen   ST0-050   ST0-050
*

NO.2 What is the first step to troubleshoot a custom requirement in a Host Integrity policy?
A. run the Host Integrity check several times
B. carefully examine the logic structure of the conditions
C. examine the Security Compliance Summary reports
D. check the properties of the endpoint from the Clients page
Answer: B

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NO.3 When is Host Integrity Checking enabled on a Symantec Network Access Control (SNAC) client?
A. when the Host Integrity policy is configured and distributed to the client
B. when the SNAC client is updated by LiveUpdate for content
C. during the heartbeat authentication process with the Enforcer
D. automatically when an upgrade to SNAC is made
Answer: A

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NO.4 What must an administrator specify in a custom requirement that is different from a predefined
requirement?
A. the client's policy manager domain
B. the client's group assignment
C. the policy's ending Host Integrity state
D. the policy's log entries
Answer: C

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NO.5 Which check can be performed using custom requirements to verify whether a product is running on a
client machine?
A. check that the service is running in the services snap-in
B. check that the service is running
C. check that the service has been stopped
D. check that the service has been registered
Answer: B

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NO.6 How many network interface(s) need to be configured for a Gateway Enforcer appliance?
A. 1
B. 2
C. 3
D. 4
Answer: B

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NO.7 What is the default context in which programs are run when using the patch requirement in a Host
Integrity policy?
A. in logged-in user context
B. in system context
C. in administrator user context
D. in domain-user context
Answer: B

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NO.8 Where does an administrator view compliance log files?
A. from the specific client in the Network Access Control log
B. from the Policy Manager console in the Monitors page
C. from the Policy Manager console in the Admin page
D. from the Enforcer debug logs
Answer: B

Symantec   certification ST0-050   ST0-050

NO.9 What is AVScript.js used for?
A. client status
B. to write to the system log
C. to start the status monitor
D. Host Integrity
Answer: D

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NO.10 How should the logical condition of an IF/THEN/ENDIF statement be reversed?
A. add an AND statement
B. enable the Reverse Logic Processing Engine for the requirement
C. use the Transform function of the extended scripting commands
D. toggle the NOT function on the IF portion of the statement
Answer: D

Symantec   ST0-050   certification ST0-050   ST0-050

NO.11 Which settings are specific to Antivirus and Antispyware predefined requirements?
A. application startup command
B. signature file check
C. execute an installation package
D. allow user to cancel remediation
Answer: B

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NO.12 To verify that a Symantec Endpoint Protection Manager has Symantec Network Access Control
functionality, what change to the Policies tab would an administrator see?
A. Host Integrity
B. Host Checking
C. Host Compliance
D. Host Inspection
Answer: A

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NO.13 How can the client be enabled to write the Host Integrity script to the disk?
A. set a condition in a custom requirement to write the script
B. set it in the Host Integrity policy under Advanced settings
C. enable debug logging through the registry on the endpoint
D. enable from the Clients tab under the Endpoint Machines Properties
Answer: C

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NO.14 Which custom requirement utility allows an administrator the ability to choose an informative icon to
display to the end user?
A. run a script
B. log message
C. show message dialog
D. run a program
Answer: C

Symantec   ST0-050   ST0-050   ST0-050 examen   ST0-050

NO.15 Which check can be performed using custom requirements to verify whether an antivirus product is
up-to-date on a client machine?
A. check the date of the associated signature data file(s) on the client
B. check the date of the associated signature data files(s) on the LiveUpdate server
C. check the date of the associated signature data file(s) on the IT database
D. check the date of the associated signature data file(s) in the policy manager
Answer: A

Symantec   ST0-050   ST0-050   ST0-050 examen

NO.16 When choosing to run a script as an action in a custom requirement, which file format(s) can be used
to write the script?
A. only BAT or INI formats
B. only Pearl scripting
C. a custom file format with the .symc extension
D. any executable format recognized by Windows
Answer: D

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NO.17 A Helpdesk technician is examining the logs for a particular client when he notices something odd. A
Host Integrity event is listed for a client as failing a requirement, but that client machine is still able to
access the network even after having the check rerun several times. Why would the client's Host Integrity
status still pass?
A. The requirement logic is malfunctioning and the Helpdesk technician should notify the administrator to
contact the vendor.
B. It is likely to be a problem with the recording of the status. The log search must be rerun to update the
status.
C. The administrator has configured that requirement to allow the Host Integrity policy to pass even if it
fails.
D. The administrator has configured the OS to ignore Host Integrity even when it fails.
Answer: C

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NO.18 Which two default user accounts are created on an Enforcer? (Choose two.)
A. administrator
B. admin
C. root
D. user
E. guest
Answer: AC

Symantec   ST0-050   certification ST0-050   certification ST0-050

NO.19 Which two event details are included in a standard Host Integrity log file? (Choose two.)
A. client Host Integrity status
B. name and state of each requirement
C. error messages
D. checked parameter
E. http 200 ok
Answer: AC

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NO.20 Where are Symantec Network Access Control client packages placed on the Symantec Endpoint
Protection Manager?
A. Client/Policies
B. Admin/Install Packages
C. Policies/Policy Components
D. Clients/Install Packages
Answer: B

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Code d'Examen: ST0-099
Nom d'Examen: Symantec (Symantec Enterprise Vault 9.0(STS))
Questions et réponses: 97 Q&As

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NO.1 What are two physical data storage components of Mailbox Archiving in Symantec Enterprise Vault 9 for
Exchange? (Select two.)
A. Indexes
B. Archives
C. Vault Store Group
D. Vault Store Partitions
E. Enterprise Vault Collector
Answer: A, D

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NO.2 An organization enables Outlook Anywhere (RPC over HTTP) for mobile users so users can retrieve
archived email through Outlook without being connected to a VPN. When end users who use this new
functionality try to restore an item, they are no longer prompted for where they want the item to be
restored. What is the reason for this change in behavior?
A. The system administrator has disabled custom restore locations in the policy.
B. The Symantec Enterprise Vault 9 for Exchange Outlook Add-In is using HTTP-only functionality.
C. The policy RPC over HTTP Restrictions is set to Disable User Extensions.
D. The policy RPC over HTTP Restrictions is set to Disable Offline Vault.
Answer: B

Symantec   ST0-099   ST0-099   ST0-099

NO.3 Refer to the exhibit.
On the Exchange Policy Properties page, which two items will be archived using the policy shown in the
exhibit? (Select two.)
A.all items older than four weeks
B. all items larger than 1 MB
C. all items older than four weeks and larger than 1 MB
D. all items older than three months
E. all items older than four weeks and smaller than 1 MB
Answer: C, D

Symantec examen   ST0-099   ST0-099   ST0-099 examen

NO.4 An organization is debating which Symantec Enterprise Vault 9 for Exchange Outlook client to deploy
to end users. Which two features can be used if the HTTP-only Outlook Add-In is deployed? (Select two.)
A. Users can choose which archives to store items in.
B. Users can restore items to the Restored Items folder.
C. Users can use Vault Cache.
D. Users can cancel Pending Items.
E. Users can store and classify items with retention categories.
Answer: C, D

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NO.5 Which feature delegation must be set to Read/Write in Internet Information Services (IIS 7.0) before
installing Symantec Enterprise Vault 9 for Exchange Outlook Web Access (OWA) Extensions?
A. .NET Trust Levels
B. .NET Roles
C. Failed Request Tracing Rules
D. IPv4 Address and Domain Restrictions
Answer: D

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NO.6 An administrator needs to migrate a large number of PST files located in users' Outlook profiles and on
a shared drive. Which two PST migration methods will accomplish this? (Select two.)
A. Client-Driven Migration
B. Server-Driven Migration
C. PST Migration Wizard
D. Locate-Migrate Wizard
E. Automatic Migration
Answer: A, B

Symantec   ST0-099   certification ST0-099

NO.7 Which information is held in the Symantec Enterprise Vault 9 for Exchange (EV 9) Directory Database?
A. archived items
B. configuration data for an EV 9 site
C. configuration information of indexed data
D. storage location of single instanced items
Answer: B

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NO.8 A backup administrator needs to protect the Symantec Enterprise Vault 9 for Exchange server
environment. The administrator has yet to run a backup of the vault store partition. The administrator has
Safety Copy enabled for the Vault Store. Given that the administrator has already performed some
mailbox archiving, what should occur after running the backup for the first time and clearing the archive
bit?
A. The safety copies are removed from the Exchange store.
B. The safety copies are removed from the storage queues.
C. The safety copies are flagged for removal for the next Storage Expiry.
D. The safety copies are flagged for removal when the services are restarted.
Answer: A

Symantec   certification ST0-099   ST0-099

NO.9 Symantec Enterprise Vault 9 for Exchange converts mail message attachments to text or HTML. What
is a benefit of changing the default conversion type to text instead of HTML for certain document types
A. increases the performance of file conversion
B. allows for the support of additional document types
C. increases the performance of searching
D. significantly reduces the amount of space taken by indexing
Answer: A

Symantec   certification ST0-099   ST0-099   certification ST0-099   ST0-099   certification ST0-099

NO.10 An administrator is installing Symantec Enterprise Vault 9 for Exchange (EV 9). Where should the
administrator place the EV 9 databases and log files?
A. in the installation directory of the SQL server
B. on separate physical disks of the EV server
C. on separate physical disks of the SQL server
D. on direct attached storage of the EV server
Answer: C

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NO.11 What is the minimum version of the .NET framework required on the Enterprise Vault Server for
Symantec Enterprise Vault 9 for Exchange?
A. .NET 4.0
B. .NET 3.5 SP1
C. .NET 1.1 and 2.0
D. .NET 2.0 and 3.0 SP2
Answer: B

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NO.12 A large enterprise organization requires Enterprise Vault Operations Manager. The company will have
five Symantec Enterprise Vault 9 for Exchange (EV 9) sites and three EV Directories. How many
monitoring databases should be planned?
A. 1
B. 3
C. 5
D. 8
Answer: B

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NO.13 Which task needs to be running for a PST Client-Driven Migration to be successful?
A. PST Client Task
B. PST Locator Task
C. PST Migrator Task
D. PST Collector Task
Answer: C

Symantec   ST0-099 examen   certification ST0-099   ST0-099

NO.14 What are two benefits of enabling Symantec Enterprise Vault 9 for Exchange (EV 9) for Outlook Web
Access users? (Select two.)
A. offloads Archiving Task from EV 9 server
B. provides remote access to multiple user archives
C. enables remote access to archived public folder items
D. extracts mail from the Exchange Server
E. runs independent of EV 9 services
Answer: B, C

Symantec   certification ST0-099   ST0-099 examen   ST0-099

NO.15 A backup administrator needs to protect the Symantec Enterprise Vault 9 for Exchange server
environment. In order to perform a point-in-time recovery of the database, what must be backed up daily?
A. the EnterpriseVaultDirectory SQL database
B. the SQL transaction logs
C. the SQL databases
D. the EnterpriseVaultAuditing SQL database
Answer: B

certification Symantec   ST0-099 examen   ST0-099   ST0-099   ST0-099

NO.16 A backup administrator needs to protect the Symantec Enterprise Vault 9 for Exchange server
environment. On which context menu in the Vault Admin Console does the administrator set and clear the
vault store backup mode?
A. the Enterprise Vault database
B. the Enterprise Vault services
C. the Enterprise Vault server
D. the Enterprise Vault site
Answer: D

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NO.17 Provided that appropriate options are set for users, which two actions can users perform on the Details
tab of the Vault Cache Properties dialog box? (Select two.)
A. view header and content synchronization status
B. start synchronization
C. disable synchronization
D. reverse synchronization
E. edit header and content synchronization categories
Answer: A, B

certification Symantec   ST0-099 examen   ST0-099   ST0-099   ST0-099 examen   ST0-099 examen

NO.18 An administrator is setting up Exchange managed folders and needs to apply the same retention
settings to Symantec Enterprise Vault 9 for Exchange (EV 9). Which action needs to happen to force EV 9
to synchronize the managed folder retentions?
A. in Desktop Folder policy, advanced settings, change the Archived Exchanged Managed Folders to
Normal
B. in Desktop policy, advanced settings, change the Archived Exchanged Managed Folders to Managed
C. in Mailbox policy, advanced settings, change the Archived Exchanged Managed Folders to Managed
D. in Mailbox policy, advanced settings, change the Archived Exchanged Managed Folders to Normal
Answer: C

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NO.19 A company is considering Symantec Enterprise Vault 9 for Exchange for archiving their Exchange
systems. Personnel at the company are having trouble understanding the differences between their
existing backup environment and a separate archiving environment. Which two differentiate archiving
from a backup system? (Select two.)
A. provides retention periods for individual sets of data
B. requires operator intervention to perform a data restore request
C. provides duplicate copies for disaster recovery purposes
D. ingests data from the Exchange store to the archive storage layer
E. enables fast restore capabilities for mission critical data
Answer: A, D

Symantec   certification ST0-099   certification ST0-099

NO.20 An organization needs to move all PST files into Symantec Enterprise Vault 9 for Exchange (EV 9).
Their users require constant access to their PST files during the migration. What is the recommended
migration method?
A. Client-Driven PST Migration
B. Locate and Migrate PST Migration
C. PST Migration Wizard
D. EVPM Scripted Migration
Answer: A

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Code d'Examen: 250-309
Nom d'Examen: Symantec (Administration of Symantec Enterprise Vault 9 for Exchange)
Questions et réponses: 97 Q&As

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NO.1 A company is considering Symantec Enterprise Vault 9 for Exchange for archiving their Exchange
systems. Personnel at the company are having trouble understanding the differences between their
existing backup environment and a separate archiving environment. Which two differentiate archiving
from a backup system? (Select two.)
A. provides retention periods for individual sets of data
B. requires operator intervention to perform a data restore request
C. provides duplicate copies for disaster recovery purposes
D. ingests data from the Exchange store to the archive storage layer
E. enables fast restore capabilities for mission critical data
Answer: A,D

Symantec   250-309   250-309   250-309

NO.2 A backup administrator needs to protect the Symantec Enterprise Vault 9 for Exchange server
environment. On which context menu in the Vault Admin Console does the administrator set and clear the
vault store backup mode?
A. the Enterprise Vault database
B. the Enterprise Vault services
C. the Enterprise Vault server
D. the Enterprise Vault site
Answer: D

Symantec   250-309   250-309

NO.3 An administrator is setting up Exchange managed folders and needs to apply the same retention
settings to Symantec Enterprise Vault 9 for Exchange (EV 9). Which action needs to happen to force EV 9
to synchronize the managed folder retentions?
A. in Desktop Folder policy, advanced settings, change the Archived Exchanged Managed Folders to
Normal
B. in Desktop policy, advanced settings, change the Archived Exchanged Managed Folders to Managed
C. in Mailbox policy, advanced settings, change the Archived Exchanged Managed Folders to Managed
D. in Mailbox policy, advanced settings, change the Archived Exchanged Managed Folders to Normal
Answer: C

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NO.4 Provided that appropriate options are set for users, which two actions can users perform on the Details
tab of the Vault Cache Properties dialog box? (Select two.)
A. view header and content synchronization status
B. start synchronization
C. disable synchronization
D. reverse synchronization
E. edit header and content synchronization categories
Answer: A,B

Symantec   250-309   250-309   250-309 examen   250-309 examen

NO.5 What are two benefits of enabling Symantec Enterprise Vault 9 for Exchange (EV 9) for Outlook Web
Access users? (Select two.)
A. offloads Archiving Task from EV 9 server
B. provides remote access to multiple user archives
C. enables remote access to archived public folder items
D. extracts mail from the Exchange Server
E. runs independent of EV 9 services
Answer: B,C

Symantec examen   certification 250-309   certification 250-309

NO.6 A backup administrator needs to protect the Symantec Enterprise Vault 9 for Exchange server
environment. The administrator has yet to run a backup of the vault store partition. The administrator has
Safety Copy enabled for the Vault Store. Given that the administrator has already performed some
mailbox archiving, what should occur after running the backup for the first time and clearing the archive
bit?
A. The safety copies are removed from the Exchange store.
B. The safety copies are removed from the storage queues.
C. The safety copies are flagged for removal for the next Storage Expiry.
D. The safety copies are flagged for removal when the services are restarted.
Answer: A

Symantec   250-309   250-309   certification 250-309   250-309 examen   250-309

NO.7 Which information is held in the Symantec Enterprise Vault 9 for Exchange (EV 9) Directory Database?
A. archived items
B. configuration data for an EV 9 site
C. configuration information of indexed data
D. storage location of single instanced items
Answer: B

Symantec examen   certification 250-309   250-309 examen

NO.8 Which feature delegation must be set to Read/Write in Internet Information Services (IIS 7.0) before
installing Symantec Enterprise Vault 9 for Exchange Outlook Web Access (OWA) Extensions?
A. .NET Trust Levels
B. .NET Roles
C. Failed Request Tracing Rules
D. IPv4 Address and Domain Restrictions
Answer: D

certification Symantec   certification 250-309   250-309 examen   250-309

NO.9 An organization enables Outlook Anywhere (RPC over HTTP) for mobile users so users can retrieve
archived email through Outlook without being connected to a VPN. When end users who use this new
functionality try to restore an item, they are no longer prompted for where they want the item to be
restored. What is the reason for this change in behavior?
A. The system administrator has disabled custom restore locations in the policy.
B. The Symantec Enterprise Vault 9 for Exchange Outlook Add-In is using HTTP-only functionality.
C. The policy RPC over HTTP Restrictions is set to Disable User Extensions.
D. The policy RPC over HTTP Restrictions is set to Disable Offline Vault.
Answer: B

Symantec   250-309   250-309 examen   certification 250-309   250-309

NO.10 What are two physical data storage components of Mailbox Archiving in Symantec Enterprise Vault 9
for Exchange? (Select two.)
A. Indexes
B. Archives
C. Vault Store Group
D. Vault Store Partitions
E. Enterprise Vault Collector
Answer: A,D

Symantec   250-309   250-309   250-309 examen

NO.11 An administrator is installing Symantec Enterprise Vault 9 for Exchange (EV 9). Where should the
administrator place the EV 9 databases and log files?
A. in the installation directory of the SQL server
B. on separate physical disks of the EV server
C. on separate physical disks of the SQL server
D. on direct attached storage of the EV server
Answer: C

Symantec   certification 250-309   250-309

NO.12 What is the minimum version of the .NET framework required on the Enterprise Vault Server for
Symantec Enterprise Vault 9 for Exchange?
A. .NET 4.0
B. .NET 3.5 SP1
C. .NET 1.1 and 2.0
D. .NET 2.0 and 3.0 SP2
Answer: B

Symantec   250-309 examen   certification 250-309   250-309   250-309 examen   250-309

NO.13 An organization is debating which Symantec Enterprise Vault 9 for Exchange Outlook client to deploy
to end users. Which two features can be used if the HTTP-only Outlook Add-In is deployed? (Select two.)
A. Users can choose which archives to store items in.
B. Users can restore items to the Restored Items folder.
C. Users can use Vault Cache.
D. Users can cancel Pending Items.
E. Users can store and classify items with retention categories.
Answer: C,D

Symantec   250-309 examen   250-309 examen   250-309

NO.14 A backup administrator needs to protect the Symantec Enterprise Vault 9 for Exchange server
environment. In order to perform a point-in-time recovery of the database, what must be backed up daily?
A. the EnterpriseVaultDirectory SQL database
B. the SQL transaction logs
C. the SQL databases
D. the EnterpriseVaultAuditing SQL database
Answer: B

Symantec examen   certification 250-309   certification 250-309   certification 250-309   250-309   250-309 examen

NO.15 A large enterprise organization requires Enterprise Vault Operations Manager. The company will have
five Symantec Enterprise Vault 9 for Exchange (EV 9) sites and three EV Directories. How many
monitoring databases should be planned?
A. 1
B. 3
C. 5
D. 8
Answer: B

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