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Code d'Examen: 000-124
Nom d'Examen: IBM (Power Systems with POWER7 and IBM i Sales Skills -v2)
Questions et réponses: 88 Q&As

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NO.1 A prospective customer is considering a Power Systems solution with IBM i and PowerVM.
Other possible solutions being proposed to this customer are:
- x86 with Linux, Oracle, and VMware
- x86 with Windows, SQL Server, and VMware
How does the acquisition cost and TOO of the Power Systems solution compare with the x86
solutions?
A. With POWER7, the acquisition cost is lower than for both Windows and Linux offerings resulting
in a lower 3-year TOO.
B. Acquisition costs are similarfor all solutions, butthe software maintenance costs for database and
VMware raise the 3 yearTOO of the x86 solutions
C. Acquisition costs are slightly higherforthe Power Systems solution, but the significantly reduced
operational costs result in a lower TOO over 3 years.
D. The acquisition and 3 year operational costs are lower than the Windows solution, and the
Oracle maintenance fees result in a higher 3 year TOO compared to Power.
Answer: C

IBM   certification 000-124   000-124   000-124   000-124

NO.2 What capabilityof single level storage increases system administrator productivity?
A. Multiple storage pools
B. Automatic data placement
C. Flexible storage attachment
D. HMC-based storage allocation
Answer: B

IBM examen   000-124   000-124   000-124 examen

NO.3 A customer says that they cannot use IBM i for their chosen ERP solution as some of the
application software is in Java and a Java development environment is also required.
How can this objection be addressed?
A. IBM i 7.1 on POWER7+ now supports Java running natively using DB2 for i
B. Java Virtual Machine is provided in WebSphere Application Server and runs natively on IBM i.
C. IBM i runs Javascript in a Java Virtual Machine allowing applications to run and a development
environment to be created.
D. Rational Development Studio for i has a set of Java compilers for development and a Java runtime
environment (JRE) for running applications.
Answer: B

IBM   000-124 examen   000-124 examen   certification 000-124

NO.4 An IT Director needs a relational database but cannot hire a Database Administrator (DBA) to
maintain it. How does IBM i address this challenge?
A. Systems Director Navigator for i handles DB2 database administration automatically.
B. Single Level Storage architecture and automated DB2 features mean that a DBA is not required.
C. System i Navigator manages Single Level Storage so that database administration does not require
a DBA.
D. Systems Director for i manages Single Level Storage so that database administration is easy
without a DBA.
Answer: B

IBM   000-124 examen   certification 000-124   000-124   certification 000-124

NO.5 An executive has expressed frustration about the inflexibilityof reports from their IBM i system
and is looking for a solution that supports more dynamic and flexible reports.
How will DB2 Web Query support thecustomer'sneed?
A. Web Query provides collaborative tools to rapidly analyze data, business requirements and
budgets.
B. Web Query supports predictive analysis and reports rising trends so that smarter decisions can be
made.
C. Web Query provides reporting, dashboards and ad hoc query capability through simple-to-use
user interlaces.
D. Web Query combines business intelligence data, system performance, management reports and
analysis in a controlled, secure, auditable environment.
Answer: C

IBM   000-124 examen   000-124 examen   000-124   000-124

NO.6 A 010 isconcerned about systems securityand transmission of confidential data across the
internet. What capabilities of the IBM i platform can the sales executive highlight in this situation?
A. PowerS0 software is optimized to provide security and compliance for POWER operating systems.
B. Security Access Manager combines user access management, web application protection and
encryption.
C. IBM i can send secure data across untrusted networks using SSL, IBM i Access for Windows, and
VPN connections.
D. RealSecure Server Sensor provides data loss prevention and preemptive protection while
enforcing server security policies.
Answer: C

IBM   000-124 examen   certification 000-124

NO.7 A POWERS 520 customer is running IBM i 54 and is moving to a POWER7 server. Which of the
following is a valid migration plan?
A. MigratelBMi5.4tothePOWER7
B. Host IBM i 54 in a client LPAR on the POWER7
C. Upgrade from IBM i 5.4 to IBM i 7.1 after migrating to POWER7
D. Upgrade to IBM i 7.1 on the Power 520, then migrate to POWER7
Answer: D

IBM examen   000-124 examen   000-124   certification 000-124

NO.8 What disaster recovery benefit is provided to a customer running IBM i applications when they
are using PowerHA Asynchronous Geographic Mirroring?
A. All objects are automatically replicated from an independent auxiliary storage pool to another
IBM i storage pool
B. It can be used to provide disaster recovery services to multiple company locations whether using
internal disk or SAN storage.
C. It offers a cloud-based suite of remote mirroring software that enables integrated, automated
failover for IBM i and attached x86 servers
D. Instead of IBM i server replication it delivers peer-to-peer remote copy services to any remotely
attached IBM SAN storage supported by IBM 7.1
Answer: B

IBM   000-124 examen   000-124

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Code d'Examen: 000-783
Nom d'Examen: IBM (IBM PureFlex Technical Support V2)
Questions et réponses: 45 Q&As

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NO.1 A customer wants to purchase a PureFlex solution with 10Gb network interfaces on a 32core
Power node. Each virtual machine has a critical function and unplanned down time must be avoided.
Which of the following provides the most resilient solution?
A. p260 server with two 10Gb chassis switches
B. p460 server with two 10Gb chassis switches
C. p260 server with one 10Gb chassis switch with the first switch activation upgrade
D. p460 server with one 10Gb chassis switch with the first switch activation upgrade
Answer: B

IBM   000-783   000-783   000-783

NO.2 A PureFlex prospect has CLARiiON CX4-240, AMS 2100, HP 8200, and Dell EqualLogic. They
wish to consolidate by virtualizing with IBM Flex Systems V7000 Storage Node. Which of the
following will be an issue?
A. HP 8200
B. AMS 2100
C. Dell EqualLogic
D. CLARiiON CX4-240
Answer: C

certification IBM   000-783 examen   000-783   000-783   000-783

NO.3 Design criteria dictates the use of SAN pass-thru now and the ability to upgrade to full fabric
capability later. Which of the following is the most cost effective way to accomplish this?
A. Select the 8Gb SAN Switch module now and enable full fabric functionality later
B. Select the 8Gb SAN Pass-thru module now and enable full fabric functionality later
C. Select the 8Gb SAN Switch module now and switch to Brocade interoperability mode later
D. Select the 8Gb SAN Pass-thru module now and convert to full functionality through activation
codes later
Answer: A

IBM   000-783   certification 000-783

NO.4 Which of the following features is only available with the Flex System Manager Advanced
license?
A. Image Management
B. Fabric Management
C. Storage Management
D. Virtualization Management
Answer: A

IBM   000-783 examen   000-783

NO.5 An IBM customer is concerned with transfering their Power AIX workloads to PureFlex.
Which of the following tools can predict the performance of AIX workloads on PureFlex?
A. Power Configurator
B. System Planning Tool
C. Live Partition Mobility
D. Systems Workload Estimator
Answer: D

certification IBM   certification 000-783   000-783   certification 000-783

NO.6 Which of the following virtualization products is required to create logical partitions on the
p460 compute node?
A. HMC
B. KVM
C. IVM
D. PowerVM
Answer: D

IBM examen   000-783 examen   000-783 examen   000-783

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Code d'Examen: 000-593
Nom d'Examen: IBM (IBM Tivoli Netcool/OMNIbus V7.4 Fundamentals)
Questions et réponses: 175 Q&As

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NO.1 What administrator role is required to create an ITM Monitoring Profile?
A. user
B. super
C. senior
D. admin
Answer: C

IBM examen   000-593   certification 000-593
6. What command provides information to the configured Tivoli Business System Manager
CommonListener?
A. wdmcmd
B. wdmcollect
C. wdmheartbeat
D. wdmdiscovery
Answer: D

IBM   000-593   000-593 examen   certification 000-593
7. A server administrator calls you one afternoon to inform you that he did not recieve an alert
from a monitor that should have caught a failed application service.
You remember distributing this particular Resource Model earlier in the morning.
You are unable to run a successful status check on the tmw2k engine from the Gateway.
Which two of the following selections will help in troubleshooting the failed Resource Model and
tmw2k engine? (Choose two.)
A. check status of MDist
B. check status of MDist 2
C. check status of endpoint
D. check status of resource model
E. remove the LCFNEW directory and execute 'wdmcmd'
Answer: B,C

IBM   000-593   000-593
8. A customer has the ITM Web Health Console running in a UNIX environment.
The error message "AMW4805E An error occurred while creating the graph" is displayed when
generating Historical or Online Metric graphs.
What UNIX environment variable needs to be set to correct the problem?
A. LANG
B. PATH
C. SHELL
D. DISPLAY
Answer: D

IBM   certification 000-593   certification 000-593   000-593 examen
9. Which two statements are true about the wdmconfig command? (Choose two.)
A. The wdmconfig command is used to configure ITM resource models.
B. The wdmconfig command is used to query for information concerning the configuration of the
ITM gateway processes.
C. The wdmconfig command is used to query for information concerning the configuration of the
ITM endpoint processes.
D. The wdmconfig command is used to change the values of one or more configuration keys,
governing the operation of the ITM gateway processes.
E. The wdmconfig command is used to configure the values of one or more configuration keys,
governing the operation of the ITM endpoint processes.
Answer: B,D

IBM   000-593 examen   000-593 examen   000-593 examen
10. Which two tables are required to support MDist2? (Choose two.)
A. DIST_STATE
B. DIST_NODE_STATE
C. DIST_NODE_STATUS
D. DIST_STATE_STATUS
E. DIST_PROFILE_STATE
F. DIST_UNKNOWN_STATE
Answer: A,B

IBM   000-593   000-593
11. Which two basic functions are provided by the Tivoli Framework? (Choose two.)
A. IP routing
B. C2 security
C. NETBIOS routing
D. delegated administration
E. management by subscription
Answer: D,E

IBM   000-593   000-593 examen   certification 000-593
12. On subsequent logins, which two events occur during an endpoint login, assuming the
endpoint can contact its assigned gateway? (Choose two.)
A. The endpoint reads its assigned endpoint gateway from the lcf.dat file.
B. The endpoint broadcasts its login using User Datagram Protocol (UDP).
C. The endpoint login request is received by all managed nodes in the TMR
D. The endpoint manager updates the endpoint gateway's endpoint list cache.
E. The assigned endpoint gateway checks its endpoint list cache for that endpoint.
Answer: A,E

IBM   000-593   000-593   000-593
13. Which command allows multihome hosts to function in the Tivoli environment?
A. odadmin odlist
B. odadmin reexec all
C. odadmin set_iom_by_name
D. odadmin allow_dynamic_ipaddr TRUE
Answer: C

IBM   000-593 examen   000-593 examen   000-593 examen
14. What are the documented limitations for the number of supported endpoints within one
TMR?
A. 200
B. 2000
C. 20000
D. 200000
Answer: C

IBM   000-593   000-593 examen   000-593 examen
15. Where must the Tivoli Java RDBMS Interface Module be installed?
A. all endpoints
B. any managed node configured as a RIM host
C. any machine where the MDist2 GUI is installed
D. any TMR server where Java applications access a database
Answer: C

certification IBM   000-593   certification 000-593

NO.2 When using the GUI to create a Tivoli senior administrator that will be using the desktop on a
Windows NT managed node, which user name must be entered on the Create Administrator dialog?
A. senior
B. nobody
C. tmersrvd
D. any account name that is valid on that Windows NT managed node
Answer: D

IBM   000-593   000-593 examen   000-593

NO.3 The customer wants to upgrade Tivoli Distributed Monitoring (Advanced Edition) V4.1 to ITM
V5.1.1. What should they do?
A. upgrade first to ITM V5.1 and then to ITM V5.1.1
B. install the latest DM V4.1 patches and then upgrade to ITM V5.1.1
C. install the latest DM V4.1 patches then upgrade to ITM V5.1 and then to ITM V5.1.1
D. upgrade directly from Tivoli Distributed Monitoring (Advanced Edition) V4.1 to ITM V5.1.1
Answer: A

IBM examen   certification 000-593   000-593 examen   000-593

NO.4 The customer wants the capability to automatically recover from a specific event using an
automated action.
Where does the Tivoli Administrator define this recovery action?
A. endpoint
B. Profile Manager
C. IBM Tivoli Workbench
D. IBM Tivoli Health Console
Answer: C

IBM   000-593   000-593   certification 000-593   certification 000-593   000-593

NO.5 A customer has an existing Tivoli Distributed Monitoring V3.7 deployment.
Their environment includes machines running AT&T Unix.
Which statement is true?
A. ITM V5.1.1 supports these machines, so there are no upgrade issues.
B. The customer must set up a separate TMR to monitor the machines running Tivoli Distributed
Monitoring V3.7.
C. Tivoli Distributed Monitoring V3.7 and ITM V5.1.1 can coexist on the same TMR, but must be on
separate gateways.
D. Tivoli Distributed Monitoring V3.7 and ITM V5.1.1 can coexist on the same TMR, and they can
continue to monitor the machines with DM V3.7.
Answer: D

IBM   000-593   certification 000-593   000-593   000-593

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Code d'Examen: 000-623
Nom d'Examen: IBM (System z Cloud and Linux Solution Selling)
Questions et réponses: 51 Q&As

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NO.1 Which System z Cloud feature provides scalability to meet Service Level Agreements without
over-provisioning to meet peak capacity, like Teradata and ExaData?
A. HiperSockets
B. HiperDispatch
C. Level 4 Cache
D. On/Off Capacity on Demand
Answer: D

IBM examen   000-623   000-623 examen   certification 000-623

NO.2 A customer wants to build an Infrastructure as a Service (IaaS) model to host external Cloud
services. Which product is needed to move toward this objective?
A. xCAT
B. TOSCA
C. SmartCloud Control Desk
D. SmartCloud Cost Management
Answer: A

certification IBM   certification 000-623   000-623 examen   certification 000-623   certification 000-623

NO.3 How can a customer improve consistency in its application server environment?
A. Using SmartCloud Workbench
B. Using SmartCloud Audit Control
C. Updating existing servers using Tivoli Provisioning Manager
D. Keeping servers the same using Tivoli Provisioning Manager
Answer: D

IBM   certification 000-623   000-623   000-623

NO.4 A large software development company that works with customer critical data is losing profits
because of inconsistent versions of its products that several clients use. This situation is causing
customers to migrate to a different solution.
How can a Cloud environment help reduce costs without compromising the security of the data?
A. The patch management capabilities in a System z Cloud maintains the application and
middleware versions.
B. Adopting a private Cloud solution will give the software company a faster go-to-market and
obtain new customers to replace lost revenue.
C. A public Cloud with one application and database server per customer provides the necessary
controls of the application and middleware version with lower cost.
D. A public Cloud with a unique database server and a unique application server for all customers
guarantees that all systems would be at the same release and also provides security.
Answer: A

certification IBM   000-623   000-623   000-623 examen   000-623

NO.5 Which solution offering is only available for the System z platform?
A. CloudBurst
B. SmartCloud
C. CloudSpace
D. CloudReady
Answer: D

IBM examen   000-623 examen   certification 000-623   000-623

NO.6 Why would System z Cloud be an advantage for a customer with limited human IT resources?
A. It requires less administration.
B. It costs less per virtual machine.
C. It uses less space in the data center.
D. It consumes less power in the data center
Answer: A

IBM   certification 000-623   certification 000-623

NO.7 What is the recommended first step when implementing System z Cloud?
A. Cooling water
B. Seismic evaluation
C. Energy assessment
D. Direct current availability
Answer: C

IBM examen   certification 000-623   000-623 examen   000-623

NO.8 Which feature of System z processor virtualization reduces the latency of cross partition
communications?
A. HiperSockets
B. HyperTransport
C. QuickPath Interconnect (QPI)
D. Jupiter Interconnect System Bus Architecture
Answer: A

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Code d'Examen: HP0-P10
Nom d'Examen: HP (HP Integrity Server Multi-OS Installation and Deployment)
Questions et réponses: 147 Q&As

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NO.1 Which capability does the Management Processor (MP) in the Integrity rx2620 server provide?
A. offline hardware monitoring
B. hardware administration and management
C. remote HP-UX operating system installation
D. remote monitoring of server room conditions
Answer: B

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NO.2 You have limited access to the Management Processor (MP), but you have full access to the system
Baseboard Management Console (BMC). Which command do you issue in the BMC Command Line
Interface (CLI) to power off the system hardware?
A. cli> p 0
B. cli> rs 1
C. cli> pc 0
D. cli> loc 0
Answer: A

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NO.3 You must back up all your Integrity server NVRAM configurations. Which backup utility is available for
download that can be used in the EFI shell?
A. bcfg
B. getmtc
C. nvrambkp
D. bcknvram
Answer: C

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NO.4 Which command do you use in the EFI Shell to verify that an Integrity rx4640 server has the latest
firmware?
A. openinfo fw
B. info fw
C. ver fw
D. sysrev
Answer: B

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NO.5 Which Offline Diagnostics Environment (ODE) utility should you use to test the memory of an Integrity
server?
A. MAPPER
B. SYSDIAG
C. MEMDIAG
D. DIMMDIAG
Answer: C

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NO.6 From the EFI Boot Manager, how can you get information about the installed memory DIMMs?
A. Go to the EFI Shell and enter: info mem
B. It is not possible to get the information offline.
C. The information displays automatically at the EFI Boot Manager menu.
D. Go to the System Configuration menu and choose Memory Configuration.
Answer: A

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NO.7 The diagnostic panel on an Integrity rx4640 shows a fan failure. What information on the Management
Processor (MP) shows you when the fan failed?
A. MP:CM> PS
B. MP:CM> SS
C. MP> SL --> L - Live Events
D. MP> SL --> E - System Event
Answer: D

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NO.8 You want to load new firmware for the Management Processor (MP). Which command do you use to
verify a proper connection to an FTP server?
A. xd
B. bin
C. scp
D. xu
Answer: A

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NO.9 After you replace a memory module on an Integrity server, how do you clear the entries in the Page
Deallocation Table (PDT)?
A. Interrupt the boot, go to the Service Menu and enter pdt clear.
B. Interrupt the boot, go to the EFI shell, and then enter pdt clear.
C. Interrupt the boot, enter the MP:CM> CL command, and choose PDT.
D. After reboot, the system automatically deletes entries in the PDT without user input.
Answer: B

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NO.10 You have run an Offline Diagnostics Environment (ODE) utility. What should you do before booting
the operating system or running any non-ODE utility?
A. Reset the system at the MP:CM> prompt.
B. Use the MP:CM> poff command to power off the DC voltage.
C. Reset the system at the EFI shell prompt and disconnect the AC power for one minute.
D. Reset the system at the EFI shell prompt, use the MP:CM> pc command to power off DC voltage, and
disconnect the AC power for one minute.
Answer: A

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NO.11 You just installed an Integrity rx2620 server. How do you set the MP and system times?
A. Use the MP date command to set time and date.
B. The time will be set automatically during system boot.
C. Use the EFI shell command time to set time and date of the MP.
D. Use the MP date command to set the date, and use the MP time command to set the time.
Answer: C

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NO.12 How can you access the UUID on an entry-level HP Integrity server? (Select two.)
A. The UUID is written on the system information label of the server.
B. At the EFI Boot Manager menu, access the EFI Shell; then enter info sys.
C. At the Management Processor (MP) main menu, go to the Command Menu and enter id.
D. At the EFI Boot Manager menu, access the System Configuration menu and select System UUID.
E. If you access the EFI Boot Manager menu using integrated Lights-Out (iLO), the UUID displays
automatically.
Answer: AB

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NO.13 Where is the diagnostic panel on an Integrity rx4640 server located?
A. top
B. front
C. back
D. left side
E. right side
Answer: A

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NO.14 The system is not responding normally. You have access to the Management Processor (MP). Which
command do you use to cycle the power?
A. ps
B. pc
C. rs
D. co
Answer: B

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NO.15 You are managing an Integrity rx2620 server that is located in a remote office. Which Management
Processor (MP) console command do you use to gather the state of the system and LEDs?
A. LED
B. VFP
C. ERRDUMP D. SYSSTAT
Answer: B

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NO.16 Which command in the iLO 2 controls access permissions for an Integrity rx6600 server?
A. PS
B. SO
C. PC
D. SD
Answer: B

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NO.17 The rx3600 and rx6600 have LEDs which show the FRU Health status. How can you view the state of
these LEDs remotely?
A. From the MP main menu, select VFP
B. From the MP main menu, select SL
C. From the MP main menu, select CM, then LS
D. From the MP main menu, select CM, then DF
Answer: A

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NO.18 In a Linux environment, what is one of the components used to manage highly available solutions
offered by Virtual Server Environment (VSE)?
A. HP Workload Manager
B. HP OpenView Node Manager
C. HP Global Workload Manager
D. Performance Management Pack
Answer: C

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NO.19 An Integrity rx2620 server with Windows Server 2003 is running terminal services but has stopped
responding. Which MP command do you use to shut down gracefully and power off the server?
A. rs -g
B. pc -g
C. rs -off
D. pc -off
Answer: B

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NO.20 What does an amber blinking System LED on an Integrity rx2620 indicate?
A. System is in error state
B. Remote access is enabled
C. A system warning
D. Management Processor is powered off
Answer: C

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NO.21 Which Offline Diagnostics Environment (ODE) utility should you use to test an HP Tachyon XL2 Fibre
Channel card?
A. IODIAG
B. FCDIAG
C. PERFVER
D. FCFUPDATE
Answer: A

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NO.22 How can you determine the firmware version that is running on an HP Integrity system? (Select two.)
A. At the EFI Boot Manager menu, open the EFI shell and enter info fw.
B. At the MP main menu, open the Command Menu (cm) and enter firmware.
C. At the EFI Boot Manager menu, go to the Firmware menu and select Version.
D. At the EFI Boot Manager menu, go to the Firmware Configuration menu and select Version.
E. If you access the EFI Boot Manager menu using iLO, the firmware versions display automatically.
Answer: AE

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NO.23 You need to perform a maintenance task on a Management Processor module. Which command
displays a list of connected users?
A. who
B. list
C. usmgr
D. show user
Answer: A

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NO.24 You replaced failed hardware in an HP Integrity server. Which steps should you perform to ensure
that the system is operational?
A. Verify that the replaced hardware is visible in the EFI Shell, and that the Diagnostic LEDs are clear.
B. Verify that the replaced hardware is visible in the EFI Shell and that the correct firmware version is
loaded.
C. From the EFI Shell, boot the system. From within the operating system, confirm that the replaced
hardware is functioning and verify the correct status of the Diagnostic LEDs.
D. Verify that the replaced hardware is visible in the EFI Shell and that the correct firmware version is
loaded. Then boot the system and confirm that the replaced hardware is functioning.
Answer: D

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NO.25 Which Management Processor (MP) command displays the physical location information of the
system?
A. SI
B. ID
C. LOC
D. SO
Answer: B

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NO.26 What is the difference between a Machine Check Abort (MCA) and a Transfer of Control (TOC)?
A. An MCA is a software dump; a TOC is a hardware register dump.
B. An MCA is a hardware register dump; a TOC initiates a software dump.
C. An MCA dump is for Windows systems; a TOC is for HP-UX systems.
D. An MCA dump is for HP-UX systems; a TOC is for Windows systems.
Answer: B

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NO.27 Which front panel LEDs on an Integrity rx2620 can indicate an error?
A. Locator LED and System LED
B. Power LED and Diagnostic LEDs
C. System LED and Diagnostic LEDs
D. Diagnostic LEDs and Locator LED
Answer: C

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NO.28 Which Offline Diagnostics Environment (ODE) utility should you use to test processors on an Integrity
server?
A. WDIAG
B. IA64DIAG
C. CPUDIAG
D. PROCDIAG
Answer: C

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NO.29 Where does HP OpenVMS store all error information?
A. /var/adm/syslog/syslog.log
B. SYS$ERRLOG:SYSTEM.LOG
C. SYS$ERRORLOG:ERRLOG.SYS
D. SYS$MANAGER:OPERATOR.LOG
Answer: C

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NO.30 Which methods of accessing the Offline Diagnostics Environment (ODE) utilities does HP recommend?
(Select two.)
A. from the HP service partition
B. from the EFI Boot Menu
C. from the MP command menu
D. from the operating system disk
E. from the Offline Diagnostic Utility CD
Answer: AE

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Code d'Examen: HP0-M15
Nom d'Examen: HP (HP Quality Center 9.2 Software)
Questions et réponses: 90 Q&As

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NO.1 What web client can be used with Quality Center 9.2?
A. Netscape
B. Safari
C. Firefox
D. Internet Explorer
Answer: D

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NO.2 Where can you link tests to requirements?
A. from the Test Lab module
B. from the Requirements module
C. on the test details page (Test Plan)
D. on the attachments page (Test Plan)
Answer: B

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NO.3 How is a test configured as a template test?
A. The test type chosen must be MANUAL-TEMPLATE
B. The first step in the test must be named template test
C. Right-click on the test name and choose Template Test
D. During test planning, mark the checkbox, under details, labeled template Test
Answer: C

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NO.4 What HP functional testing tools integrate with Quality Center? (Select two.)
A. HP OpenView
B. HP WinRunner
C. HP QuickTest Professional
D. HP LoadRunner
E. HP Change Control Management
Answer: BC

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NO.5 What are the steps, in the correct order, to convert a requirement to a test?
A. make changes to the automatic conversion, select an automatic method
B. select convert to test, select the destination path, convert to automated test
C. select an automatic method, make changes to the automatic conversion, select the destination subject
path
D. select the destination subject path, select an automatic method, make changes to the automatic
conversion
Answer: C

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NO.6 When a called test has parameters, when can you assign values to the parameters?
A. values are assigned from within the calling test
B. values must be assigned when the test is executed
C. values are assigned during test design or execution
D. values must be assigned when the test is called, during test design
Answer: C

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NO.7 Which term describes the main function of Quality Center?
A. test cases
B. repository
C. load test
D. defects
Answer: B

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NO.8 Which component provides an executive-level view of the entire quality process?
A. Quality Center Foundation
B. Business Process Insight
C. Service Test Component
D. Quality Center Dashboard
Answer: D

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NO.9 When designing test steps it is important to ensure that all aspects of the application are tested. When
writing test steps, what are two things that should be done to ensure clear and accurate steps? (Select
two.)
A. specify all actual results
B. use parameters in the step names
C. specify pass and fail conditions for the step
D. use the numbering system for the step names
E. use consistent terminology throughout the test
Answer: CE

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NO.10 What database can be used with Quality Center 9.2? Select two.
A. Access
B. Sybase
C. Microsoft SQL Server
D. Paradox
E. Oracle
Answer: CE

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Code d'Examen: HP0-S11
Nom d'Examen: HP (Integrating and Managing HP ProLiant ML/DL in the Enterprise)
Questions et réponses: 249 Q&As

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NO.1 Which technology in Ethernet switches ensures loop-free connectivity?
A.Spanning Tree Protocol
B.Spanning Topology Recovery
C.Uplink Trunk Blocking Protocol
D.Layer 2 Loop Broadcast Recovery
WArialZX
ANSWER: A

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NO.2 What is an example of a shared everything cluster model?
A.HP Integrity NonStop
B.HP Serviceguard for Linux
C.Novell Netware Cluster Services
D.Microsoft Windows 2003 Server Cluster
ANSWER: A

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NO.3 After initial HP Systems Insight Manager v5.x discovery and type identification, a comprehensive data
collection is attempted on all newly discovered devices. It will the store the details in the database on the
Centralized Management Server (CMS).
Which protocols are used in this comprehensive data collection? (Select three.)
A.Cisco Discovery Protocol (CDP)
B.Distributed Management Interface (DMI)
C.Internet Group Management Protocol (IGMP)
D.Web-Based Enterprise Management (WBEM)
E.Simple Network Management Protocol (SNMP)
ANSWER: BDE

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NO.4 Which ProLiant Essentials product erases the entire system during its installation process?
A.HP Insight Control Environment
B.HP Insight Control Linux Edition
C.HP Virtual Machine Management Pack
D.HP Insight Control Data Center Edition
ANSWER: B

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NO.5 Which types of migration can be performed by HP Virtualization Management Software? (Select
three.)
A.Virtual to Virtual migration
B.Virtual to Physical migration
C.Physical to Virtual migration
D.ProLiant to Integrity migration
E.Physical to ProLiant migration
WArialZX
ANSWER: ABC

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NO.6 Which HP Systems Insight Manager task enables the administrator to gather information from a newly
discovered network device?
A.polling
B.discovery
C.identification
D.data collection
ANSWER: D

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NO.7 Click the Exhibit button.
Which systems are currently not monitored or licensed for performance monitoring using HP Systems
Insight Manager? (Select two.)
A.server sgh70413xa
B.server sgh70413xb
C.server sgh70413wy
D.server home-ews3047277
ANSWER: BD

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NO.8 Which type of task allows you to update software and firmware of several ProLiant Servers using HP
Systems Insight Manager?
A.Control
B.Polling
C.Distribution
D.Management
ANSWER: A

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NO.9 A customer wants to order 20 ProLiant DL380 G5 Servers to be shipped to a field location with no IT
support. The servers should be already racked, cabled, and have an operating system loaded when they
are delivered to the field location.
Which HP service is best suited for this situation?
A.HP Factory Express
B.HP Consulting Services
C.HP Care Pack Installation Service
D.HP Care Pack Next Business Day hardware support
ANSWER: A

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NO.10 In a Fibre Channel fabric network, which network service is responsible for registering and
maintaining a valid logical network address database that is used for LUN masking and zoning?
A.Time Services
B.CHAP Services
C.Name Server Services
D.Secured Fabric Services
WArialZX
ANSWER: C

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NO.11 You have a few ProLiant servers running Microsoft Windows Server 2003 that have the Emergency
Management Services (EMS) enabled.
Using the Special Administration Console (SAC), which command limits the memory usage of a process?
A.k
B.r
C.m
D.lock
WArialCourier NewZX
ANSWER: C

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NO.12 Which parameters have an effect on the amount of time required to perform an online capacity
expansion? (Select two.)
A.logical drive size
B.amount of other I/O work the server is processing
C.amount of physical memory installed in the system
D.priority level of the rebuild operation set in the Array Configuration Utility (ACU)
WArialZX
ANSWER: AB

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NO.13 You need to install an MSA50 enclosure in an HP rack but the enclosure unit is not available at the
planned installation time. Therefore, you need to allocate the required space in the rack and plan the
installation once the enclosure is available.
What is the EIA unit height of the MSA50 enclosure?
A.1U
B.2U
C.3U
D.4U
WArialZX
ANSWER: A

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NO.14 Which component license involves a communications protocol that provides direct transmission of
data from the memory of one computer to the memory of another with minimal demands on the host CPU?
A.Accelerated iSCSI Pack
B.Virtual Connect Enterprise Manager
C.InfiniBand Teaming Networking Pack
D.RDMA Pack for Multifunction Gigabit Server Adapter
WArialZX
ANSWER: D

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NO.15 Which HP server uses HyperTransport architecture?
A.BL20p
B.DL140
C.DL385
D.ML370
E.rx2620
WArialZX
ANSWER: C

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NO.16 What is required to enable online spare memory on a ProLiant DL-series server?
A.All processor sockets must be populated and the spare VRM must be installed.
B.All memory banks available in the server must be populated with DIMMs of the same size.
C.The DIMMs in the spare bank must be the same size or larger than those in the other banks.
D.ProLiant Essentials must be installed on the system where online spare memory will be enabled.
ANSWER: C

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NO.17 Which ProLiant Essentials product uses Virus Throttle to prevent the spread of viruses and worms?
A.Intelligent Networking Pack
B.Insight Control Linux Edition
C.iLO Advanced Feature Pack
D.Performance Management Pack
ANSWER: A

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NO.18 Your customer has an MSA30 set up in a single-bus configuration and wants to change it to a dual-bus
configuration.
How do you accomplish this?
A.It is not possible to configure the MSA30 in a dual-bus configuration.
B.You replace the single-port SCSI I/O module with a dual-port SCSI I/O module.
C.You set the Bus Configuration switch to dual-bus mode on the back of the MSA30 unit.
D.You reconfigure the properties of the MSA30 controller using Array Configuration Utility (ACU).
ANSWER: B

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NO.19 A data center administrator wants to measure the BTU/hr generated by all the current ProLiant 380
G5 servers. The administrator wants to use this information to accommodate more servers without
making changes to the data center cooling system.
Which HP Essential product should the administrator use to accomplish this?
A.HP Insight Power Manager
B.HP Rack and Power Manager
C.HP Insight Control Linux Edition
D.HP Insight Control Environment for ProLiant ML/DL
E.HP Insight Control Environment for HP BladeSystem
ANSWER: A

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NO.20 You are performing capacity planning for an active/active cluster.
Which factors are most important for you to consider? (Select two.)
A.bandwidth of the cluster interconnect
B.cluster node processor requirements
C.memory requirements of each cluster node
D.maximum number of concurrent user connections
E.bandwidth between the cluster nodes and the shared storage
WArialZX
ANSWER: BC

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NO.21 Which HP servers use HyperTransport architecture? (Select two.)
A.BL480c
B.ML150
C.DL365
D.ML570
E.DL320
F.DL585
WArialZX
ANSWER: CF

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NO.22 Which ProLiant Essentials product monitors and graphs the air temperature as it enters a server?
A.HP Onboard Administrator
B.HP Insight Power Manager
C.HP Insight Control Linux Edition
D.HP iLO Power Management Pack
ANSWER: B

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NO.23 Which software should be used to configure the write cache setting in the MSA1500cs?
A.Array Diagnostic Utility
B.Array Configuration Utility
C.Resource Partition Manager
D.Network Configuration Utility
WArialZX
ANSWER: B

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NO.24 By default with any addition pack installed, which file formats are available for reports generated from
HP Systems Insight Manager? (Select three.)
A..txt
B..pdf
C..xml
D..prn
E..csv
F..html
WArialZX
ANSWER: CEF

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NO.25 Which address syntax is valid for iSCSI addressing?
A.iqn.0202.hpstorage.hp.com
B.fqdn.2007.03.iSCSI.hp.com
C.iqn.2006.02.com.hp:hpstorage
D.ieee.iSCSI.ifqdn.2006.03.com.hp:hpstorage
WArialZX
ANSWER: C

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NO.26 Click the Exhibit button.
A customer requires your assistance in designing the database server shown in the attached exhibit. The
database will have a large volume of writes to the log files and heavy read/write use of the data files.
Which RAID configuration would provide the best performance?
A.log files: RAID 5
data files: RAID 5
B.log files: RAID 5
data files: RAID 6 (ADG)
C.log files: RAID 1+0
data files: RAID 5
D.log files: RAID 1+0
data files: RAID 6 (ADG)
E.log files: RAID 6 (ADG)
ANSWER: C

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NO.27 What is an example of a shared everything cluster model?
A.Oracle RAC
B.HP Integrity NonStop
C.Microsoft Windows 2003 Server Cluster
D.HP Serviceguard services on Linux Server
ANSWER: B

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NO.28 Which advantage do AMD Opteron processors offer over Intel Pentium Xeon processors used in HP
ProLiant servers?
A.AMD Opteron processors use Burst Mode Memory technology.
B.AMD Opteron-based memory is connected to each processor via a South Bridge chip.
C.AMD Opteron-based system memory modules are controlled and managed by the processor they are
attached to.
D.AMD Opteron processors use the MemBus architecture that interconnects all installed processors and
memory modules.
ANSWER: C

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NO.29 Click the Exhibit button.
From the screen shown, click the Array Configuration Utility (ACU).
The ACU shows the Smart Array controller, but not the MSA1000 attached to the Linux server. The Linux
server can access and use the LUNs on the MSA1000.
What should you do to allow the ACU to configure the MSA1000?
A.Install the hpacucli package.
B.Install the cpqacuxe package.
C.Install the ProLiant Support Pack.
D.Install the ProLiant Integration Module
ANSWER:
C

NO.30 Which processor currently uses 64-bit x86 based architecture and HyperTransport technology?
A.AMD Athlon
B.Intel Itanium2
C.AMD Opteron
D.Intel Pentium IV
ANSWER: C

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Code d'Examen: HP0-A01
Nom d'Examen: HP (HP-UX 11i v3 System Administration)
Questions et réponses: 179 Q&As

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NO.1 How can you enable only NFS version 4 support on HP-UX 11i v3?
A.HP-UX v3 does not support NFSv4.
B.Change the NFSv4 kernel parameter to yes, recompile the kernel and reboot.
C.Using only NFSv4 is not supported; NFSv2 and NFSv3 are always enabled.
D.Set the configuration parameters NFS_SERVER_VERSMIN and NFS_SERVER_VERSMAX to 4.
Answer:D

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NO.2 Which tools have been deprecated with the introduction of the nwmgr command? (Select three.)
A.netstat
B.ifconfig
C.linkloop
D.lanscan
E.lanadmin
Answer:C D E

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NO.3 Which file c ontains the modified c onfiguration values that will be us ed the next time the cims erver s tarts ?
A.cimserver.conf
B.cimserver_start.conf
C.cimserver_planned.conf
D.cimserver_nextboot.conf
Answer:C

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NO.4 How do you remove a virtual partition?
A.from the vPar monitor: MON>VPARREMOVE -p
B.from the MP: CM>VPARDELETE and select the name of the vPar from the list
C.execute vparstatus, then verify the vPar is down using vparremove -p
D.bring down all the vPar kernels made from the same nPar and reboot the kernel into the nPar
Answer:C

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NO.5 Click the Task button. Using drag and drop, match each backup/archive tool with its operation.
Answer:
Green choice5---->Yellow Choice1
Green choice4---->Yellow Choice2
Green choice2---->Yellow Choice3
Green choice3---->Yellow Choice4
Green choice6---->Yellow Choice5
Green choice1---->Yellow Choice6

NO.6 Which feature is new to 11i v3 and is only available on Integrity servers?
A.NUMA
B.ccNUMA
C.concurrent dumps
D.single CPU per socket
Answer:C

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NO.7 C lick the E xhibit button. Why do you s ee an "x" for the us ers in the s ec ond field of the /etc/ pas s wd file?
A.password is expired
B.blank password is used.
C.user is currently deactivated.
D.shadow password is enabled.
Answer:D

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NO.8 Which files c ontrol the HP S ys tem Manag ement Homepag e (S MH) c onfiguration? (S elect two.)
A./opt/smh/smh.conf
B./opt/smh/conf/envvars
C ./opt/hpsmh/hpsmh.conf
D./opt/hpsmh/lbin/envvars
E./opt/smh/conf/timeout.conf
F./opt/hpsmh/conf/timeout.conf
Answer:D F

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NO.9 What are the new features offered in NFS version 4? (Select three.)
A.integrated security
B.asynchronous write support
C.integrated file locking support
D.simplified firewall configuration
E.support for the UDP network transport
Answer:A C D

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NO.10 The HP-UX System Management Homepage is started using which URL?
A.http://hostname
B.http://hostname:80
C.http://hostname:2301
D.http://hostname/hpsmh
Answer:C

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NO.11 What are the major features of IPFilter on HP -UX 11i v3? (Select three.)
A.creates extensive logs
B.supports X.25 Interfaces
C.installed and enabled by default
D.provides a new GUI configuration tool
E.supports Network Address Translation (NAT)
Answer:A B E

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NO.12 What does the linkloop command test?
A.router activity
B.Maximum Transmission Unit (MTU) size
C.MAC address connectivity between network cards
D.loopback address connectivity between network cards
Answer:C

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NO.13 Which commands can confirm host name resolution (DNS/Bind) is working correctly?
A.whois
B.uname
C.nsquery
D.hostname
E.gethostbyname
Answer:C

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NO.14 What is IP multiplexing on a UNIX host?
A.increasing throughput on the network interface
B.binding the same IP address to multiple network interface
C.binding more than one IP address to a single network interface
D.binding more than one MAC address to a single network interface
Answer:C

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NO.15 Which file s ys tems are included with the HP -UX Foundation Operating Environment (OE)? (Select two.)
A.ext3
B.HFS
C.VxVM
D.memfs
E.Base JFS
F.Online JFS
Answer:B E

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NO.16 Which feature of HP CIFS allows a Unix uid or gid to be mapped to a Windows account or group?
A.nmbd
B.smbd
C.winbind
D.smbclient
Answer:C

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NO.17 Which areas can be locations of system bottlenecks? (Select three.)
A.disk
B.CPU
C.VPMON
D.memory
E.hard partition size
F.graphical interface
G.size of filesystems
Answer:A B D

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NO.18 What is the length of an IPv4 address?
A.32 bits
B.48 bits
C.64 bits
D.128 bits
Answer:A

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NO.19 Which NF S s erver file c ontains a lis t of clients that currently have the s erver's NF S file s ys tems mounted?
A./etc/fstab
B./etc/rmtab
C./etc/nfstab
D./etc/mnttab
E./etc/exports
Answer:B

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NO.20 How do you change a volume group name without reloading the data?
A.It is not possible.
B.vgchange
C.vgexport, mkdir, mknod, vgimport
D.vgremove, mkdir, mknod, vgcreate
Answer:C

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NO.21 Which command displays Internet to Ethernet address resolution?
A.arp
B.lanscan
C.ifconfig
D.traceroute
Answer:A

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NO.22 Which file c ontains the information s ent in res pons e to a bootp reques t?
A./etc/services
B./etc/bootptab
C./etc/inetd.conf
D./etc/bootp.conf
Answer:B

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NO.23 What are benefits of the HP-UX 11i v3 parallel probing of HBAs, targets, and LUNs? (Select two.)
A.improved boot time
B.improved availability
C.improved virtualization
D.improved I/O scan time
E.improved I/O performance
Answer:A D

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NO.24 If ios c an s hows no device files for a claimed hardware path, which c ommand c an be us ed to recreate them?
A.lssf
B.reboot
C.insf -e
D./sbin/ioinitrc
Answer:C

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NO.25 Which commands are recommended to clear the c ontents an ac tive file c alled log-file? (S elect two.)
A.>log-file
B.trim log-file
C.freset log-file
D.cat /dev/null > log-file
Answer:A D

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NO.26 Where are system startup/shutdown scripts located?
A./etc/rc2.d
B./sbin/init.d
C./sbin/config.d
D./etc/rc.config.d
Answer:B

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NO.27 Which vPar feature is available on HP -UX 11i v3?
A.shared I/O
B.CPU granularity
C.dynamic migration of I/O
D.dynamic migration of memory
Answer:D

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NO.28 C lick the T as k button. Us ing drag and drop, match each network c onfiguration file with its c ommon
definition.
Answer:
Green choice3---->Yellow Choice1
Green choice2---->Yellow Choice2
Green choice1---->Yellow Choice3
Green choice4---->Yellow Choice4

NO.29 What does the pvcreate command create?
A.a hard partition
B.the physical links
C.a physical volume device file
D.the lvm disk resident structures
Answer:D

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NO.30 Which pair of statements is true when launching a tool using HP System Insight Manager (HP SIM)?
A.- authorizations are configured in HP SIM - users are authenticated using PAM on the HP SIM Server
B.- authorizations are configured in HP SIM - users are authenticated using HP SIM's internal user database
C.- authorizations are configured in Select Access - users are authenticated using HP SIM's internal user database
D.- authorizations are derived from operating system login account permissions - users are authenticated using
PAM on the HP SIM Server
Answer:A

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Code d'Examen: HP0-144
Nom d'Examen: HP (ProCurve Secure WAN)
Questions et réponses: 111 Q&As

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NO.1 Which feature does the ProCurve Secure Router 7203dl provide that the ProCurve Secure Router
7102dl does not?
A. built-in encryption module
B. support for redundant power source (RPS)
C. one additional Ethernet port
D. support for up to 6 ADSL lines
Answer: B

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NO.2 The status of the BRI interface is "connected." What does a connected status indicate?
A. The backup module is installed in the ProCurve Secure Router and is ready to be configured.
B. The BRI interface has been assigned to a primary connection.
C. The BRI interface is ready to provide a backup connection.
D. The BRI interface is currently providing a backup connection.
Answer: D

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NO.3 How can you configure the ProCurve Secure Router so that a backup module does not establish a
backup connection with an unauthenticated peer?
A. Set the backup call mode so that the module cannot answer calls until the primary connection goes
down.
B. Configure PAP or CHAP on the backup interface.
C. Add an authentication, authorization, and accounting (AAA) list to the backup interface.
D. Add authenticated routers' hostnames to the global configuration mode database.
Answer: B

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NO.4 You have configured an Integrated Services Digital Network (ISDN) backup for your organization's
Frame Relay connection. When this connection goes down, which virtual interface could establish and
maintain the backup connection?
A. a backup Asynchronous Transfer Mode (ATM) interface
B. a backup Frame Relay interface
C. a backup Point-to-Point Protocol (PPP) interface
D. a backup BRI ISDN interface
Answer: C

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NO.5 Which steps must you complete to enable access to the ProCurve Secure Router's web interface?
Select TWO.
A. Enable the ftp server.
B. Enable the http server.
C. Configure a Telnet password.
D. Configure an enable mode password.
E. Configure a username and password.
F. Configure an ACL permitting FTP traffic.
Answer: BE

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NO.6 Before the ProCurve Secure Router and the DSL Access Multiplexer (DSLAM) exchange
Asynchronous Transfer Mode (ATM) cells, they utilize physical-layer signaling to establish an Asymmetric
DSL (ADSL) connection. Which monitor evaluates the signal-to-noise ratio (SNR) margin while the router
and the DSLAM establish the physical ADSL connection?
A. ADSL monitor
B. showtime monitor
C. phase 1 monitor
D. training monitor
Answer: D

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NO.7 Which function does the virtual path identifier/virtual channel identifier (VPI/VCI) perform?
A. It identifies the endpoint for an Asynchronous Transfer Mode (ATM) connection.
B. It identifies the tunnel endpoint for virtual private network (VPN) peers.
C. It identifies the permanent virtual circuit (PVC) in a Frame Relay network.
D. It defines each peer in a Point-to-Point Protocol (PPP) connection, if authentication is configured.
Answer: A

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NO.8 Which type of firewall monitors traffic on several layers of the Open Systems Interconnection (OSI)
model?
A. packet-filtering firewall
B. circuit-level gateway
C. application-level gateway
D. stateful-inspection firewall
Answer: D

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NO.9 When you are configuring an Asymmetric Digital Subscriber Line (ADSL), what is the purpose of
training mode?
A. ADSL is dependent upon line quality; ADSL devices must determine the best way to use the line.
B. ADSL devices always negotiate the signaling standard used, based on the type of DSLAM used by the
public carrier.
C. The ADSL device and the DSLAM must identify the fastest switched virtual circuit (SVC) available.
D. The training mode is essentially a testing phase to determine if the ADSL module itself is working
correctly.
Answer: A

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NO.10 Which interfaces can be configured as DHCP clients? Select TWO.
A. BRI interface
B. ADSL interface
C. ATM subinterface
D. Ethernet interface
E. Frame Relay interface
F. DSX-1 or G. 703 interface
Answer: CD

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NO.11 The Asymmetric Digital Subscriber Line (ADSL) keeps going into training mode. What is causing this
problem?
A. The signaling type configured for the router does not match the signaling type used by the service
provider.
B. The encapsulation type configured for the router does not match the type used by the service provider.
C. The signal-to-noise (SNR) margin configured for the router is too high.
D. The ADSL interface has not been assigned an IP address.
Answer: C

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NO.12 Which tasks can you use CompactFlash to complete? Select TWO.
A. Configure routers at remote sites.
B. Increase RAM on the router by configuring virtual memory.
C. Enter bootstrap mode.
D. Back up configuration files.
E. Enable IPSec security.
F. Store and view the Secure Router OS in an uncompressed format.
Answer: AD

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NO.13 Which Quality of Service (QoS) features does the ProCurve Secure Router support? Select TWO.
A. custom queuing
B. low latency queuing (LLQ)
C. weighted fair queuing (WFQ)
D. generic traffic shaping (GTS)
E. Frame Relay traffic shaping (FRTS)
Answer: BC

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NO.14 How many access control lists (ACLs) can you apply directly to one interface?
A. 1
B. 2
C. 5
D. unlimited number
Answer: B

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NO.15 Which type of connection may be used for the backup modules on the ProCurve Secure Router?
A. Asymmetric Digital Subscriber Line (ADSL)2+, Annex A or Annex B
B. T1 or E1 connections
C. Integrated Services Digital Network (ISDN) connection
D. Asynchronous Transfer Mode (ATM) connection
Answer: C

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NO.16 Click the Exhibit button.
You want your ProCurve Secure Router to act as a gateway device for any remote VPN client who
initiates IKE in its most secure mode. Which policy shown contains the correct configurations for this
use?
A. 1
B. 2
C. 3
D. 4
E. 5
F. 6
G. 7
Answer: C

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NO.17 What determines the number of Asynchronous Transfer Mode (ATM) subinterfaces you configure for
an Asymmetric Digital Subscriber Line (ADSL) connection?
A. the number of LANs you want to connect to the Internet
B. the number of access control lists (ACLs) you want to apply to the ADSL interface
C. the amount of bandwidth you want to reserve for upstream and downstream transmissions
D. the number of virtual circuits you want to establish
Answer: D

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NO.18 What is a disadvantage of dynamic routing?
A. Dynamic routing does not allow you to restrict which networks are included in routing tables.
B. Dynamic routing can consume bandwidth and CPU processes on the router.
C. Dynamic routing is less scalable than static routing.
D. Dynamic routing makes adding new networks to a WAN difficult.
Answer: B

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NO.19 What must you do to configure Point-to-Point Protocol over Ethernet (PPPoE) for an Asymmetric
Digital Subscriber Line (ADSL)?
A. Configure and bind the ATM interface to the ADSL interface; then bind the ATM subinterface to a PPP
interface.
B. Configure a PPP interface; then bind the PPP interface to the ADSL interface.
C. Configure both an ATM interface and a PPP interface, and bind the ADSL interface to both virtual
interfaces.
D. Configure a PPPoE interface and bind it directly to the ADSL interface.
Answer: A

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NO.20 Which command allows you to use enable mode commands from any mode except basic mode?
A. the get command
B. the go command
C. the nomode command
D. the do command
Answer: D

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