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Code d'Examen: DU0-001

Nom d'Examen: APC (Data Center University Associate Certification)

Questions et réponses: 325 Q&As

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NO.1 What is the unit of measurement of the electrical current moving through a circuit?
A. Volt
B. Amp
C. Ohm
D. Frequency
Answer: B

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NO.2 Click the Exhibit button.
Which air distribution method is displayed in the exhibit?
A. Flooded supply, flooded return
B. Flooded supply, fully ducted return
C. Flooded supply, locally ducted return
D. Locally ducted supply, flooded return
Answer: A

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NO.3 What does the CFD acronym stand for?
A. Certified Field Dichotomy
B. Circular Flow Determination
C. Computational Finite Deviation
D. Computational Fluid Dynamics
Answer: D

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NO.4 What describes the number of times AC current is switched back and forth over a period of 1 second?
A. Voltage
B. Frequency
C. Amperage
D. Power factor
Answer: B

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NO.5 Click the Exhibit button.
Which air distribution method is displayed in this picture?
A. Flooded supply, fully ducted return
B. Flooded supply, locally ducted return
C. Locally ducted supply, flooded return
D. Locally ducted supply, flooded return
Answer: B

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NO.6 What are three power distribution components found in data centers? (Choose three.)
A. Ground loop
B. Branch circuit
C. Metered outlet strip
D. Power distribution unit (PDU)
E. Valve regulated lead acid (VRLA) battery
Answer: BCD

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NO.7 What is an advantage of choosing a four-post open frame rack over a two-post open frame rack?
A. Lower cost
B. Smaller footprint
C. Easier assembly
D. Increased strength
Answer: D

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NO.8 What is the difference between an undervoltage and a sag?
A. A sag lasts less time than an undervoltage condition.
B. A sag has less of a voltage drop than an undervoltage condition.
C. A sag is due to downstream loads and undervoltage is due to the power source.
D. A sag occurs in low voltage distribution and undervoltage occurs in high voltage distribution.
Answer: A

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NO.9 What is the purpose of grounding?
A. To protect against electric shock
B. To step down 208 V power to 120 V power
C. To maintain the voltage during neutral wire bonding
D. To provide a path for the Ground Fault Interrupt (GFI) circuit
Answer: A

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NO.10 Which type of humidification system uses quartz lamps extended over an open pool of water to
release water vapor?
A. Infrared humidifier
B. Ultrasonic humidifier
C. Electromagnetic humidifier
D. Steam canister humidifier
Answer: A

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NO.11 An infrared scan of cabling can detect what two problems? (Choose two.)
A. An overloaded circuit
B. A loose connection
C. Compatibility errors
D. Electrical interference
Answer: AB

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NO.12 What is a component of the network-critical physical infrastructure (NCPI)?
A. Voice over IP
B. Fire protection
C. Office supplies
D. Desktop application software
Answer: B

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NO.13 What describes the ratio of watts to volt-amps?
A. Frequency
B. Power factor
C. Actual power
D. Apparent power
Answer: B

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NO.14 Requiring frequent password changes can compromise security because _____.
A. Users tend to write down frequently changed passwords
B. It makes the password database an easier target for hackers
C. It makes it harder for legitimate users to access their own data
D. It burdens the IT help desk with requests for forgotten or expired passwords
Answer: A

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NO.15 What is required for the transfer of heat from one object to another?
A. A difference in airflow
B. A difference in volume
C. A difference in pressure
D. A difference in temperature
Answer: D

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NO.16 The rear of an IT equipment rack is fitted with a duct that is connected to a drop ceiling plenum; the
plenum is connected by a duct to the perimeter CRAC unit. The CRAC unit discharges air into a raised
floor. The IT equipment rack is located above a hole in the raised floor which allows conditioned air to
enter the rack.
This is an example of which type of air distribution system?
A. Flooded supply, fully ducted return
B. Locally ducted supply, flooded return
C. Flooded supply, locally ducted return
D. Fully ducted supply, fully ducted return
Answer: D

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NO.17 What is defined as the force of electricity moving through a circuit?
A. Volt
B. Amp
C. Ohm
D. Frequency
Answer: A

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NO.18 What does the term "5-nines" availability mean?
A. 5 minutes of downtime per year
B. 9 minutes of downtime per year
C. 14 minutes of downtime per year
D. 45 minutes of downtime per year
Answer: A

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NO.19 What would be a comprehensive strategy for protecting the most critical racks of a data center?
A. Key access to the critical racks
B. Video camera pointed directly at critical racks
C. Iris scanner at the entrance to the data center
D. Nested security perimeters with racks at the innermost level
Answer: D

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NO.20 What are three benefits of Inergen? (Choose three.)
A. It is non-conductive.
B. It has zero ozone depletion potential.
C. It has a low pressure delivery system.
D. It requires less storage tanks than Halon.
E. It is safe to discharge in an occupied area.
Answer: ABE

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NO.21 Click the Exhibit button.
Which air distribution method is displayed in this picture?
A. Fully ducted supply, flooded return
B. Flooded supply, fully ducted return
C. Flooded supply, locally ducted return
D. Locally ducted supply, flooded return
Answer: A

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NO.22 How do enclosures improve rack system cooling?
A. By improving natural air flow
B. By improving fire suppression
C. By allowing hot and cold air to mix together
D. By preventing hot and cold air from mixing together
Answer: D

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NO.23 What is the highest cost UPS configuration?
A. System + system
B. Parallel redundant
C. Isolated redundant
D. Distributed redundant
Answer: A

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NO.24 Which statement correctly defines direct current (DC)?
A. Only high voltage is used.
B. Electricity flows in one direction only.
C. The circuit does not have multiple paths.
D. The circuit is directly attached to the power source.
Answer: B

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NO.25 What is a difference between Single-phase and three-phase power?
A. Single-phase power is flat but three-phase power is sinusoidal.
B. Single-phase power is dependent on power factor but three-phase power is not.
C. Single-phase power is limited to approximately 120 kW but three-phase power is unlimited.
D. Single-phase power is more costly for the power company to distribute than three-phase power.
Answer: D

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NO.26 What are three advantages of biometric access control? (Choose three.)
A. Cannot be lost
B. Inexpensive to deploy
C. Difficult to fool the sensor
D. Cannot be shared with others
E. Always correctly identifies the user
Answer: ACD

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NO.27 What is an example of a standard building management system (BMS) protocol?
A. IPV6
B. TCP/IP
C. MODBUS
D. 10/100 BASE-T
Answer: C

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NO.28 What is the unit of measurement of the electrical resistance of a circuit?
A. Volt
B. Amp
C. Ohm
D. Frequency
Answer: C

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NO.29 What does GFCI mean?
A. Ground Fault Circuit Interrupter
B. General Facilities Cooling Index
C. Gaussian Filter Charge Indicator
D. Grounded Flaw Circuitry Installed
Answer: A

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NO.30 Cooling towers are a typical component of which heat rejection system?
A. Water cooled system
B. Glycol cooled system
C. Air cooled split system
D. Air cooled self-contained system
Answer: A

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Code d'Examen: ICYB

Nom d'Examen: IASSC (IASSC Certified Lean Six Sigma Yellow Belt)

Questions et réponses: 120 Q&As

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NO.1 Voice of the Customer is a Lean Six Sigma technique to determine the ___________ attributes
of
a product or service.
A. Desirable
B. Beneficial
C. Critical-to-Quality
D. Preferred
Answer: C

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NO.2 When a process has proven itself to function at a Six Sigma level this means there are less than
________ defects per million opportunities.
A. 1.7
B. 2.6
C. 3.4
D. 10
Answer: C

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NO.3 When we assess the Voice of the Customer we are attempting to determine the gaps in our
processes between “what is” and __________________.
A. “What isn’t”
B. “What will make money”
C. “What will cost less”
D. “What should be”
Answer: D

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NO.4 Benefits and working conditions would be primarily the concern of which of the following?
A. Voice of the Customer
B. Voice of the Employee
C. Voice of the Business
D. Voice of the Process
Answer: B

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NO.5 Six Sigma refers to a process whose output has at least 95% of its data points within 6
Standard
Deviations from the Mean.
A. True
B. False
Answer: B

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NO.6 In the expression Y = f(Xn) Y , the output, is the ___________ variable and Xn, the inputs, are
the
__________ variables.
A. Independent, dependent
B. Individual, multiple
C. Sole, multiple
D. Dependent, independent
Answer: D

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NO.7 The ROI for a project is a measurement metric that stands for Return on Investment and is one
of
the methods used to measure the success of a Lean Six Sigma project.
A. True
B. False
Answer: A

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NO.8 Which of the following would likely not be a CTQ (Critical-to-Quality) for the purchase of a
product?
A. Functionality
B. Durability
C. Dependability
D. None
Answer: D

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NO.9 Training cost is $3,000 and a project required an initial investment of $12,000. If the project
yields
monthly savings of $1,800 beginning after 3 months, what is the payback period in months (before
money costs and taxes)?
A. 4.17
B. 8.33
C. 11.33
D. 28.28
Answer: C

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NO.10 The DMAIC approach to problem solving stands for Define, __________, Analyze, Improve and
Control.
A. Manage
B. Measure
C. Memorize
D. Manipulate
Answer: B

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Code d'Examen: CCB-400

Nom d'Examen: Cloudera (Cloudera Certified Specialist in Apache HBase)

Questions et réponses: 45 Q&As

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NO.1 You have an "Employees" table in HBase. The Row Keys are the employees' IDs. You would like
to retrieve all employees who have an employee ID between 'user_100' and 'user_110'.
The shell command you would use to complete this is:
A. scan'Employees', {STARTROW =>'user_100', STOPROW =>'user_111'}
B. get'Employees', {STARTROW =>'user_100', STOPROW =>'user_110'}
C. scan'Employees', {STARTROW =>'user_100', SLIMIT => 10}
D. scan'Employees', {STARTROW =>'user_100', STOPROW =>'user_110'}
Answer: D

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NO.2 You have one primary HMaster and one standby. Your primary HMaster Falls fails and your
client application needs to make a metadata change.
Which of the following is the effect on your client application?
A. The client will queryZooKeepertofind the location of the new HMaster and complete the
metadata change.
B. The client will make the metadata change regardless of the slate of the HMaster.
C. The new HMaster will notify the client and complete the metadata change.
D. Theclientapplication will fail with a runtime error.
Answer: A

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NO.3 The cells in a given row have versions that range from 1000 to 2000. You execute a delete
specifying the value 3000 for the version.
What is the outcome?
A. The delete fails with an error.
B. Only cells equal to the Specified version are deleted.
C. The entire row is deleted.
D. Nothing in the row is deleted.
Answer: C

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NO.4 Under default settings, which feature of HBase ensures that data won't be lost in the event of
a Region Server failure?
A. AllHBase activity is written to the WAL, which is stored in HDFS
B. All operations are logged on theHMaster.
C. HBase is ACID compliant, which guarantees that itis Durable.
D. Data is stored on the local filesystem of the RegionServer.
Answer: A

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NO.5 You have an average key-value pair size of 100 bytes.
Your primary access is random needs on the table.
Which of the following actions will speed up random reading performance on your cluster?
A. Turn off WAL on puts
B. Increase the number of versions kept
C. Decrease the block size
D. Increase the block size
Answer: D

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Code d'Examen: CCA-470

Nom d'Examen: Cloudera (Cloudera Certified Administrator for Apache Hadoop CDH4 Upgrade Exam (CCAH))

Questions et réponses: 87 Q&As

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NO.1 In HDFS, you view a file with rw-r--r-- set as its permissions. What does this tell you about the
file?
A. The file cannot be deleted by anyone but the owner
B. The file cannot be deleted by anyone
C. The file cannot be run as a MapReduce job
D. The file’s contents can be modified by the owner, but no-one else
E. As a Filesystem in Userspace (FUSE), HDFS files are available to all user’s on a cluster
regardless of their underlying POSIX permissions.
Answer: A

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NO.2 You have a cluster running with the FIFO scheduler enabled. You submit a large job A to the
cluster which you expect to run for one hour. Then, you submit job B to the cluster, which you
expect to run a couple of minutes only. Let’s assume both jobs are running at the same priority.
How does the FIFO scheduler execute the jobs? (Choose 3)
A. The order of execution of tasks within a job may vary.
B. When a job is submitted, all tasks belonging to that job are scheduled.
C. Given jobs A and B submitted in that order, all tasks from job A will be scheduled before all
tasks from job B.
D. Since job B needs only a few tasks, if might finish before job A completes.
Answer: A,B,C

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NO.3 Identify the function performed by the Secondary NameNode daemon on a cluster configured
to
run with a single NameNode.
A. In this configuration, the Secondary NameNode performs a checkpoint operation on the files by
the NameNode.
B. In this configuration, the Secondary NameNode is standby NameNode, ready to failover and
provide high availability.
C. In this configuration, the Secondary NameNode performs deal-time backups of the NameNode.
D. In this configuration, the Secondary NameNode servers as alternate data channel for clients to
reach HDFS, should the NameNode become too busy.
Answer: A

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NO.4 Which two features does Kerberos security add to a Hadoop cluster?
A. Authentication for user access to the cluster against a central server
B. Encryption for data on disk ("at rest")
C. Encryption on all remote procedure calls (RPCs)
D. User authentication on all remote procedure calls (RPcs)
E. Root access to the cluster for users hdfs and mapred but non-root acess clients
Answer: C,D

Cloudera examen   CCA-470   CCA-470   CCA-470 examen
10. Which three processes does HDFS High Availability (HA) enable on your cluster?
A. Automatically 'fail over' between NameNodes if one goes down
B. Write data to two clusterssimultaneously
C. Shut one NameNode down for maintenance without halting the cluster
D. Manually 'fail over' between NameNodes
E. Configure unlimited hot standby NameNode.
Answer: A,C,D

Cloudera examen   certification CCA-470   certification CCA-470   CCA-470 examen   CCA-470

NO.5 A client wants to read a file from HDFS. How does the data get from the DataNodes to the
client?
A. The NameNode reads the blocks from the DataNodes, and caches them. Then, the application
reads the blocks from the NameNode.
B. The application reads the blocks directly from the DataNodes.
C. The blocks are sent to a single DataNode, then the application reads the blocks from that Data
Node.
Answer: B

Cloudera examen   CCA-470 examen   CCA-470

NO.6 Compare the hardware requirements of the NameNode with that of the DataNodes in a
Hadoop
cluster running MapReduce v1 (MRv1):
A. The NameNode requires more memory and requires greater disk capacity than the DataNodes.
B. The NameNode and DataNodes should the same hardware configuration.
C. The NameNode requires more memory and no disk drives.
D. The NameNode requires more memory but less disk capacity.
E. The NameNode requires less memory and less disk capacity than the DataNodes.
Answer: D

certification Cloudera   CCA-470   CCA-470 examen   certification CCA-470   certification CCA-470

NO.7 What does CDH packaging do on install to facilitate Kerberos security setup?
A. Automatically configure permissions for log files at $MAPPED_LOG_DIR/userlogs
B. Creates and configures you kdc with default cluster values.
C. Creates users for hdfs and mapreduce to facilitate role assignment.
D. Creates a set of pre-configured Kerberos keytab files and their permissions.
E. Creates directories for temp, hdfs, and mapreduce with correct permissions.
Answer: C

certification Cloudera   CCA-470 examen   CCA-470   certification CCA-470

NO.8 How does the NameNode know DataNodes are available on a cluster running MapReduce v1
(MRv1)
A. DataNodes listed in the dfs.hosts file. The NameNode uses as the definitive list of available
DataNodes.
B. DataNodes heartbeat in the master on a regular basis.
C. The NameNode broadcasts a heartbeat on the network on a regular basis, and DataNodes
respond.
D. The NameNode send a broadcast across the network when it first starts, and DataNodes
respond.
Answer: B

Cloudera   CCA-470   certification CCA-470

NO.9 The failure of which daemon makes HDFS unavailable on a cluster running MapReduce v1
(MRv1)?
A. Node Manager
B. Application Manager
C. Resource Manager
D. Secondary NameNode
E. NameNode
F. DataNode
Answer: E

certification Cloudera   CCA-470   CCA-470

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Code d'Examen: CTP

Nom d'Examen: AFP (Certified Treasury Professional )

Questions et réponses: 612 Q&As

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NO.1 A put option on a company's stock has an exercise price of $20. On the delivery date, the stock is
trading at $24 per share. What should the investor who has paid $2 for the option do?
A. Not exercise the option and lose $2.
B. Not exercise the option and lose $6.
C. Exercise the option and gain $2.
D. Exercise the option and gain $4.
Answer: A

AFP   CTP examen   certification CTP   CTP examen

NO.2 An instrument that gives the right to buy a stated number of shares of common stock at a specified price
is known as:
A. an equity warrant
B. a put option
C. a zero coupon bond
D. a subordinated debenture
Answer: A

certification AFP   CTP   CTP examen   CTP examen

NO.3 Which of the following are important uses of variance analysis in comparing actual cash flows with
projected cash flows?
I. Identifying unanticipated changes in inventory
II. Enhancing short-term investment income
III. Validating a capital budget
IV. Identifying delays in accounts receivable collections
A. I and II only
B. I and IV only
C. II and IV only
D. I, II, III, and IV
Answer: B

AFP   CTP   certification CTP   CTP   CTP   CTP

NO.4 An arrangement in which a borrower makes periodic payments to a separate custodial account that is
used to repay debt is known as a:
A. sinking fund
B. balloon payment
C. mortgage
D. zero-coupon bond
Answer: A

AFP   CTP   CTP examen

NO.5 A bank issues a letter of credit (L/C) and receives a request for payment under the L/C. The buyer
notifies the issuing bank not to make payment because there is a dispute over the quality of the
merchandise. However, the documents received fully comply with the terms of the L/C. Which of the
following statements is true?
A. The buyer may immediately return the merchandise and cancel the L/C.
B. The bank may delay payment until reimbursed by the buyer.
C. The bank may delay payment, provided the seller is notified of the dispute within three business days.
D. The bank must make payment and is entitled to immediate reimbursement from the buyer.
Answer: D

AFP examen   CTP   CTP   CTP

NO.6 In a typical swap transaction, two parties agree to exchange:
A. notional principal amounts.
B. amortization schedules.
C. maturity dates of obligations.
D. cash flows at future points in time.
Answer: D

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NO.7 Which of the following is a characteristic of giro systems used in countries in Europe?
A. They operate through their postal systems.
B. They are primarily used for company-to-company payments.
C. They do not replace checks for the payment of bills.
D. They do not allow the use of direct debits and credits.
Answer: A

AFP   CTP   CTP   certification CTP   CTP examen

NO.8 A call option for a company has an exercise price of $50. The stock is currently trading at $60. At
maturity, what should an investor who paid $3 for the option do?
A. Exercise the option and gain $7.
B. Exercise the option and gain $10.
C. Not exercise the option and lose $3.
D. Not exercise the option and lose $13.
Answer: A

AFP   CTP   CTP   CTP   CTP

NO.9 A company is based in the United States and has an operating subsidiary in Germany. With a stable
U.S. dollar and a depreciating euro, the company's cash manager may elect to:
A. pool excess funds in the United States to offset German deficits.
B. implement a dollar-based multilateral netting system.
C. start leading receivables from the German subsidiary.
D. establish a multicurrency account in the United States.
Answer: C

certification AFP   certification CTP   certification CTP   CTP

NO.10 An optimal concentration system minimizes all of the following EXCEPT:
A. administrative costs.
B. disbursement float.
C. excess balances.
D. transfer costs.
Answer: B

AFP examen   CTP   certification CTP   certification CTP

NO.11 A company plans to issue additional equity within the next 12 months but needs to issue debt at a low
interest rate now. Which of the following instruments would BEST meet this objective?
A. Convertible bonds
B. Private placement issue
C. Preferred stock
D. Subordinated debentures
Answer: A

AFP   CTP   CTP   CTP   CTP

NO.12 A Chicago meat processor is concerned about the volatility of pork belly prices. Which of the following
derivative products would be used to fix these prices within a given range?
A. Collar
B. Swap
C. Cap
D. Spot purchase
Answer: A

certification AFP   CTP   CTP examen

NO.13 The KEY decision in using CCD+ and CTX formats for B2B payments is:
A. whether to keep the payment and remittance information together or separate.
B. whether to use the Internet or an EDI spoke to transmit electronic payments.
C. whether to use an EDI or a UN/EDIFACT protocol to transfer the value electronically.
D. whether an evaluated receipts or paid-on-production technique is being used for the transfer.
Answer: A

AFP   CTP   certification CTP   certification CTP

NO.14 Which of the following instruments simplifies the paperwork connected with loans that have multiple
advance features?
A. Master note
B. Banker's acceptance
C. Indenture agreement
D. Note purchase agreement
Answer: A

certification AFP   CTP   CTP   CTP

NO.15 On the basis of the following exchange rates,
which of the following currency amounts has the greatest value in U.S. dollars?
A. C$750,000
B. ¡ê850,00
C. 900,000
D. £¤5,000,000
Answer: B

AFP examen   CTP   CTP examen

NO.16 A French company conducts business strictly within the euro zone (the EMU). Which type of risk is of
LEAST concern?
A. Terrorist
B. Regulatory
C. Payment
D. Currency
Answer: D

AFP   CTP   CTP examen

NO.17 Account analysis statements should be examined for which of the following reasons?
I. To verify volumes processed
II. To determine daily cash shortages
III. To verify the accuracy of bank service charges
IV. To ensure that company-initiated transactions have occurred
A. I and IV only
B. I and III only
C. II and III only
D. II and IV only
Answer: B

AFP   CTP   CTP examen   CTP

NO.18 In which of the following international cash management methods is title for goods transferred for
intercompany sales?
A. Pooling
B. Internal factoring
C. Multilateral netting
D. Re-invoicing
Answer: D

AFP   CTP examen   CTP examen

NO.19 Netting is used by which of the following as a cross-border payment technique?
A. European giro providers
B. Foreign subsidiaries of a company
C. Counterparties in a letter of credit transaction
D. TARGET participants
Answer: B

AFP   certification CTP   CTP   certification CTP

NO.20 Which one of the following ties a user ¯ s p ri va t e key t o a use¡ ¯s pu b l ic key
A. A digital signature
B. A digital certificate
C. A digitized signature
D. A digital token
Answer: B

AFP   CTP examen   certification CTP   CTP examen

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Code d'Examen: PEGACBA001

Nom d'Examen: Pegasystems (PRPC v6.1 Certified Business Architect Written Exam)

Questions et réponses: 101 Q&As

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NO.1 Why do Pegasystems best practices suggest limiting flow rules to 15 SmartShapes? (Excluding
Connectors, Notify, Comment, Pool, Swimlane, and Router shapes)
A. Flows with more than 15 shapes cannot be printed
B. More than 15 SmartShapes in one flow rule may result in performance issues
C. In order to improve readability, maintainability, and ease in traceability when debugging the
application processes
D. Flows with more than 15 SmartShapes cannot be updated
Answer: C

Pegasystems   PEGACBA001   PEGACBA001   PEGACBA001 examen   PEGACBA001

NO.2 Which two statements are true about work covers and covered work objects? (Choose three.)
A. A covered work object can belong to many work folders
B. Work covers can be nested within other work objects
C. Work covers can become a parent to one or more related work objects
D. Work covers can be resolved automatically when all covered work objects belonging to that
cover are resolved
Answer: A,C,D

Pegasystems   PEGACBA001   certification PEGACBA001   PEGACBA001   PEGACBA001

NO.3 When an Application Profile and Application Accelerator process is started, they both create
actual
PRPC work objects that keep track of the choices made and can be saved.
A. True
B. False
Answer: A

Pegasystems   certification PEGACBA001   certification PEGACBA001   PEGACBA001 examen   PEGACBA001   certification PEGACBA001

NO.4 What does "Build For Change(r)" mean?
A. Build applications without change control, in order to complete projects more quickly
B. Launch applications as soon as possible so that performance testing can be done in Production
C. Build applications that are more easily adaptable due to inevitable business change
D. Business architects initially build PRPC applications and system architects subsequently
change them
Answer: C

Pegasystems   PEGACBA001 examen   PEGACBA001 examen   PEGACBA001

NO.5 Which of the following statuses is the standard default status assigned to all new work
objects?
A. Open
B. New
C. Resolved-Completed
D. Start
Answer: B

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NO.6 Decision Table rules can be edited in Excel.
A. True
B. False
Answer: A

Pegasystems examen   PEGACBA001   PEGACBA001   PEGACBA001 examen

NO.7 Which two statements are true about Declarative Expression rules? (Choose two.)
A. They can perform a computation
B. They can constrain a property to a range of values.
C. They can execute an Activity upon creation of a work object.
D. They can display the result of a Decision table
Answer: A,D

certification Pegasystems   PEGACBA001   certification PEGACBA001   PEGACBA001

NO.8 Which of the following tools can be used to create one or more properties with a common
Applies
To class?
A. Application Explorer
B. Define Property Wizard
C. PAL
D. Class Explorer
Answer: B

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NO.9 The Application Accelerator can be utilized without first creating an Application Profile in the
Application Profile wizard.
A. True
B. False
Answer: A

Pegasystems   certification PEGACBA001   PEGACBA001   PEGACBA001 examen

NO.10 Service level rules include which of the following time intervals? (Choose two.)
A. Milestone
B. Requirement
C. Goal
D. Deadline
Answer: C,D

certification Pegasystems   PEGACBA001   PEGACBA001   PEGACBA001

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L'avènement de la certification ISQI pratique d'examen CTAL-TM-001 questions et réponses

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Code d'Examen: CTAL-TM-001

Nom d'Examen: ISQI (ISTQB Certified Tester Advanced Level - Test Manager)

Questions et réponses: 65 Q&As

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NO.1 Since the system is in the medical domain and therefore in the safety critical area, testing needs to be
rigorous and evidence is required that the system has been adequately tested. Identify THREE measures
that would typically be part of the test approach in this domain and which are not always applicable in
other domains! 1 credit
A. High level of documentation
B. Failure Mode and Effect Analysis (FMEA) sessions
C. Traceability to requirements
D. Non-functional testing
E. Master test planning
F. Test design techniques
G. Reviews
Answer: A,B,C

ISQI   certification CTAL-TM-001   CTAL-TM-001

NO.2 What is the main reason why reviews are especially beneficial in the above-mentioned scenario? 2
credits
A. They ensure a common understanding of the product.
B. They find defects early.
C. They enhance project communication.
D. They can be performed without exercising the code.
Answer: D

ISQI   CTAL-TM-001   certification CTAL-TM-001   certification CTAL-TM-001

NO.3 Considerable attention will be given in this project to defining exit criteria and on reporting back on their
status. Which combination of TWO exit criteria from the list would be best to use? 1 credit
I. Total number of defects found
II. Percentage of test cases executed
III. Total test effort planned versus total actual test effort spent
IV. Defect trend (number of defects found per test run over time
A. (i) and (ii)
B. (i) and (iv)
C. (ii) and (iii)
D. (ii) and (iv)
Answer: D

certification ISQI   CTAL-TM-001   CTAL-TM-001
Topic 2, Scenario 2 "Reviews"
A software development organization wants to introduce some specific improvements to its test
process. Currently, most of their testing resources are focussedon system testing. They are
developing embedded software, and do not have a simulation environment to enable them
toexecute software modules on the development host. They have been advised that introducing
inspections and reviews could be the most appropriate step forward.

NO.4 Consider the typical objectives of testing. Which of the following metrics can be used to measure the
effectiveness of the testing process in achieving one of those objectives? 1 credit
A. Average number of days between defect discovery and resolution
B. Percentage of requirements covered
C. Lines of code written per developer per day
D. Percentage of test effort spent on regression testing
Answer: B

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NO.5 Identify the THREE types of formal peer reviews that can be recognized. 1 credit
A. Inspection
B. Management review
C. Walkthrough
D. Audit
E. Technical review
F. Informal review
G. Assessment
Answer: A,C,E

ISQI   CTAL-TM-001 examen   CTAL-TM-001 examen   CTAL-TM-001   CTAL-TM-001

NO.6 Explain how the above mentioned report may differ from a report that you produce for the project
manager, who is a test specialist Select TWO items from the following options that can be used to report
to the project manager and would not be included in a report to senior management. 1 credit
A. Show details on effort spent
B. List of all outstanding defects with their priority and severity
C. Give product risk status
D. Show trend analysis
E. State recommendations for release
Answer: A,B

ISQI   CTAL-TM-001 examen   CTAL-TM-001 examen   CTAL-TM-001

NO.7 You have been given responsibility for the non-functional testing of a safety-critical monitoring &
diagnostics package in the medical area. Which of the following would you least expect to see addressed
in the test plan? 1 credit
A. Availability
B. Safety
C. Portability
D. Reliability
Answer: C

ISQI examen   CTAL-TM-001   CTAL-TM-001   CTAL-TM-001   CTAL-TM-001

NO.8 A test log is one of the documents that need to be produced in this domain in order to provide evidence
of testing. However, the level of detail of test logs can vary. Which of the following is NOT an influencing
factor for the level of detail of the test logs being produced? 1 credit
A. Level of test execution automation
B. Test level
C. Regulatory requirements
D. Experience level of testers
Answer: D

ISQI   CTAL-TM-001   CTAL-TM-001   CTAL-TM-001

NO.9 As part of the improvement program, the organization is also looking at tool support. Which type of tool
could be used to ensure higher quality of the code to be reviewed? 1 credit
A. Review tool
B. Test execution tool
C. Static analysis tool
D. Test design tool
Answer: C

ISQI   CTAL-TM-001   CTAL-TM-001   CTAL-TM-001

NO.10 Topic 1, Scenario 1 "Medical Domain"
You are working as a test manager in the medical domain leading a team of system testers. You are
currently working on a major release of the product which gives customers many new features and
resolves a number of problem reports from previous releases.
1.You are about to release a test progress report to a senior manager, who is not a test specialist. Which
of the following topics should NOT be included in the test progress report? 1 credit
A. Product risks which have been mitigated and those which are outstanding.
B. Recommendations for taking controlling actions
C. Status compared against the started exit criteria
D. Detailed overview of the risk-based test approach being used to ensure the exit criteria to be achieved
Answer: D

ISQI   certification CTAL-TM-001   CTAL-TM-001 examen   CTAL-TM-001

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L'avènement de la certification PRINCE2 pratique d'examen PRINCE2 questions et réponses

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Code d'Examen: PRINCE2

Nom d'Examen: PRINCE2 (PRINCE2 Foundation)

Questions et réponses: 239 Q&As

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NO.1 The configuration of the final deliverable of the project is
A. The sum total of its products
B. The interim products
C. Its product description
D. The single end-product
Answer: A

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NO.2 Which of the following is NOT a PRINCE2 definition of a project?
A. Has an organisation structure
B. Produces defined and measurable business products
C. Uses a defined amount of resources
D. Uses a defined set of techniques
Answer: D

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NO.3 In what sequence would the (a) Project Initiation Document, (b) the Project Mandate and (c) the Project
Brief appear in a PRINCE2 project?
A. a, b, c
B. b, c, a
C. c, a, b
D. c, b, a
Answer: B

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NO.4 Which one of these is NOT a PRINCE2 Component?
A. Plans
B. Controls
C. Work Package
D. Configuration Management
Answer: C

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NO.5 In "Closing a Project" (CP) the project files are archived. What is the explanation given for this?
A. To provide useful lessons to future projects
B. Never throw anything away.
C. This material may be needed by Programme Management
D. To permit any future audit of the project's actions
Answer: D

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NO.6 If, after a Quality Review Follow-up Action, an error is still not resolved, what action should be taken?
A. An Exception Report is made
B. A Project Issue is raised
C. An Exception Memo is raised
D. The review is reconvened
Answer: B

PRINCE2   PRINCE2   PRINCE2   PRINCE2

NO.7 Which of these processes does NOT trigger the Planning (PL) process?
A. Starting Up a Project (SU)
B. Initiating a Project (IP)
C. Managing Stage Boundaries (SB)
D. Controlling a Stage (CS)
Answer: D

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NO.8 What environment does PRINCE2 assume?
A. A fixed-PRICE contract
B. A Customer/Supplier environment
C. A specialist environment
D. A third-party environment
Answer: B

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NO.9 In a Product Breakdown Structure what category of product is a Highlight Report?
A. Quality
B. Specialist
C. Technical
D. Management
Answer: D

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NO.10 How often does PRINCE2 recommend that open Project Issues should be reviewed?
A. Weekly
B. At Exception Assessments
C. At Checkpoint Meetings
D. On a regular basis
Answer: D

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NO.11 What is the first job carried out on receipt of a new Project Issue?
A. Allocation of priority
B. Logging
C. Decision on what type of issue
D. Impact Analysis
Answer: B

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NO.12 Which feature of PRINCE2 tells the Project Manager where a product is, what its status is and who is
working on it?
A. Work Package
B. Product Description
C. Checkpoint Report
D. Configuration Management
Answer: D

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NO.13 Which would require the production of an Exception Report?
A. When a Project Issue is received
B. When a Project Board member raises a complaint
C. When a Request For Change or Off-Specification has been received
D. When the current forecasts for the end of the stage deviate beyond the delegated tolerance bounds
Answer: D

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NO.14 Which of the following statements is FALSE?
A. Customer quality expectations should be discovered in the process
"Starting Up a Project"
B. Acompany'sQMSbecomespartofPRINCE2
C. PRINCE2 may form part of a company's QMS
D. The Stage Plan describes in detail how part of the Project Plan will be carried out
Answer: B

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NO.15 Which of these items does NOT involve the Project Board?
A. Exception Assessment
B. Highlight Reports
C. Project Closure
D. Work Package Authorisation
Answer: D

PRINCE2   PRINCE2   PRINCE2

NO.16 What other control is closely linked with configuration management?
A. Risk Management
B. Project Closure
C. Change Control
D. Project Initiation
Answer: C

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NO.17 Fill in the missing phrase from"a project is a management environment that is created for the purpose of
delivering one or more business products according to......"
A. TheCustomer'sNeds
B. An Agreed Contract
C. The Project Plan
D. A specified Business Case
Answer: D

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NO.18 Which statement is NOT a fundamental principle of" Closing a Project"? "A clear end to a project"
A. provides a useful opportunity to take stock of achievements
B. provides an opportunity to ensure that all unachieved goals and objectives are identified
C. provides the opportunity to evaluate achievement of all the expected benefits
D. is always more successful than the natural tendency to drift into operational Management
Answer: C

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NO.19 Which product keeps track of Requests For Change.?
A. Request Log
B. Daily Log
C. Quality Log
D. Issue Log
Answer: D

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NO.20 What is the more common term used in PRINCE2 for"deliverable"?
A. Item
B. Package
C. Product
D. Component
Answer: C

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NO.21 Which document lists the major products of a plan with their key delivery dates?
A. Product Outline
B. Product Breakdown Structure
C. Checkpoint Report
D. Product Checklist
Answer: D

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NO.22 Which part of a product lifespan is not part of a project life cycle in the eyes of PRINCE2?
A. The change-over to operational use of the product
B. Assessment of the value of the product after a period of use
C. The specification of the product
D. Finalisation of the business case
Answer: B

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NO.23 What other product is reviewed at the end of each stage apart from the Business Case and Project
Plan?
A. The Project Mandate
B. The Team Plan
C. The Risk Log
D. The Project Brief
Answer: C

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NO.24 Which of these statements is FALSE?
A. The Project Plan is an overview of the total project.
B. For each stage identified in the Project Plan, a Stage Plan is required.
C. An Exception Plan needs the approval of the next higher level of authority.
D. A Team Plan needs approval by the Project Board.
Answer: D

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NO.25 Which one of these statements describes the true purpose of Acceptance Criteria?
A. A justification for undertaking the project based on estimated costs and anticipated benefits.
B. A measurable definition of what must be done for the final product to be acceptable to the Customer.
C. To provide a full and firm foundation for the initiation of a project.
D. To triger 'Starting up a Project'.
Answer: B

PRINCE2   PRINCE2   PRINCE2 examen

NO.26 What provision in Planning can be made for implementing Requests for Change?
A. Project and stage tolerances
B. Contingency plans
C. A Change Budget
D. Adding a contingency margin to estimates
Answer: C

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NO.27 Which of the following statements is FALSE? Project Managers using PRINCE2 are encouraged to...
A. Establish terms of reference as a prerequisite to the start of the project
B. Use a defined structure for delegation, authority and communication
C. Divide the project into manageable stages for more accurate planning
D. Provide brief reports to management at regular meetings
Answer: D

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NO.28 In PRINCE2 what product is used to define the information that justifies the setting up,
continuation or termination of the project?
A. Project Initiation Document
B. Business Case
C. End Stage Approval
D. Project Brief
Answer: B

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NO.29 What name is given to the permissible deviation from a plan allowed without immediate reporting to
the Project Board?
A. Allowance
B. Contingency
C. Concession
D. Tolerance
Answer: D

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NO.30 Which of these is NOT a valid Risk Management action?
A. Prevention
B. Denial
C. Reduction
D. Transference
Answer: B

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Certification Motorola Solutions de téléchargement gratuit pratique d'examen MSC-235, questions et réponses

Beaucoup de travailleurs dans l'Industrie IT peut obenir un meilleur travail et améliorer son niveau de vie à travers le Certificat Motorola Solutions MSC-235. Mais la majorité des candidats dépensent beaucoup de temps et d'argent pour préparer le test, ça ne coûte pas dans cette société que le temps est tellement précieux. Pass4Test peut vous aider à économiser le temps et l'effort pendant le cours de la préparation du test Motorola Solutions MSC-235. Choisir le produit de Pass4Test particulier pour le test Certification Motorola Solutions MSC-235 vous permet à réussir 100% le test. Votre argent sera tout rendu si malheureusement vous ne passez pas le test.

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Code d'Examen: MSC-235

Nom d'Examen: Motorola Solutions (Design and Deploy for MOTOTRBO Connect Plus Solutions BETA)

Questions et réponses: 130 Q&As

MSC-235 Démo gratuit à télécharger: http://www.pass4test.fr/MSC-235.html

NO.1 You are designing a 3 site Connect Plus system with 12 repeaters per site, no site controller
redundancy, and 3 control channel-capable repeaters at each site. The average number of
subscribers active at a site may approach 300 at any given time of the day. If this customer
experiences a site controller failure, what symptoms and subscriber behavior would you expect
immediately after the failure occurs?
A. All calls in progress at the site will drop. Subscribers will automatically fall back to digital
conventional, allowing users to utilize any of the site’s repeaters.
B. All calls in progress at the site will drop. All subscribers will attempt to roam to one of the other
sites.
C. Calls in progress will remain until one of the other control-channel capable repeaters assumes
the site controller’s role and then they will drop and register on the new controller.
D. Calls in progress will stay up until they complete normally. Subscribers on the control channel
will attempt to roam to one of the other sites.
Answer: B

Motorola Solutions   MSC-235   certification MSC-235   MSC-235

NO.2 A Request for Proposal (RFP) for a single-site, operations-critical customer requires you to
respond to the following requirement: “...if the RF site equipment includes network switches,
describe the system behavior in the event of a site LAN switch failure.” Which of the following is
the BEST response to this requirement?
A. Redundant site networking equipment may be specified and configured so as to negate the
impact of a single site LAN switch failure. If redundant networking equipment is not installed,the
failure of a site LAN will not affect calls in-progress, but will make it impossible for subscribers to
register at the site.
B. If the single site LAN switch fails, the site master repeater will begin broadcasting failsoft
messages. All subscribers will revert to failsoft operation. The users may select any site repeater
on which to communicate conventionally.
C. Redundant site networking equipment may be specified and configured so as to negate the
impact of a single site LAN switch failure. If redundant networking equipment is not installed, the
failure of a site LAN switch will cause all calls to drop and the subscribers will attempt to roam to
an operational site.
D. In the case of a single-site system, Connect Plus does not utilize site LAN switches.
Answer: C

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NO.3 You are using the Network Manager to connect to a multisite system. Where can you view the
current state of connections to other sites in this multisite system?
A. Event Log Viewer
B. RealTime Display
C. Site Status Window
D. MultiSite Configuration Window
Answer: C

certification Motorola Solutions   MSC-235   MSC-235

NO.4 Your customer is a rail operator whose system covers approximately 125 kilometers (77 miles)
of
track. Trains travel rapidly, and the operator is using a location tracking application to update their
displayed location as frequently as possible. Location updates are critical, even if this means
putting voice calls into the busy queue. What can you do to ensure this behavior?
A. Make sure that RSSI settings are set to -ll3dBm or less for “RSSI Preferred” in the mobiles in
the trains. This will allow the proper sensitivity to make frequent location updates possible. Give
individual SU records a lower priority than any talkgroup priority.
B. Enhanced GPS must be enabled in the Repeaters and Subscribers. Give individual SU records
a higher priority than any talkgroup priority.
C. Call Sessions Configuration in the Network Manager should be set to 29 for the “Number of
Outbound Data Sessions Allowed” field and somewhat less for the Number of Voice/Inbound Data
sessions field. Give individual SU records a higher priority than any talkgroup priority.
D. Location updates should be optimized by enabling Advanced GPS with GPS Data Revert
channels.
Answer: C

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NO.5 If there is a failure or reboot of a site controller, which of the following must you consider
regarding
Over The Air (OTA) file transfers (select TWO)?
A. Any transfers in progress at the time of the failure may have to be repeated.
B. The controller will have to be re-entitled for OTA operation after it is back online.
C. If the site controller recovers on a different Control Channel, transfers may have to be
reconfigured.
D. Any pending transfers on that controller will be lost and must be re-queued.
Answer: A,D

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NO.6 Your customer operates a 4-site Connect Plus network. Two sites are adjacent to each other,
with
overlapping coverage. The other two sites respectively service two manufacturing plants that are
approximately 900 kilometers (559 miles) apart. There are approximately 30 talkgroups in the
network and 300 subscribers. When creating the Option Board codeplug for this customer’s
portable radios, which of the following is the best strategy to ensure smooth, logical operation?
A. Create a separate zone for each of the 4 sites to contain all the necessary contact and RSSI
settings.
B. Create a single Connect Plus zone that will address all of their necessary RSSI settings and
contact lists.
C. Create 2 Connect Plus zones to contain the different contacts and RSSI settings necessary
with this type of topology.
D. Create 3 separate Connect Plus zones to contain the different contacts and RSSI settings
necessary with this type of topology.
Answer: D

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